How does the text equivalent of Habakkuk 2:4 read? The LXX reads differently as follows: Habakkuk 2:4 If he should draw back, my soul has no pleasure in him: but the just shall live by ***my faith***. The MT instead of "my faith" reads "his faith". In the NT it is altered to "by faith". What is intended in the LXX? Does "my faith" refer to YHWH's faith as He is the speaker? Does the MT "his faith" refer to the faith including the commandments/covenant they received from YHWH, as one commentary stated.
Habakkuk 2:4 in the Aleppo codex reads the same as the standard MT reading of "his faith" (see pg. 22-200-r, starting at the bottom of the first column). Why the translators of the LXX chose to translate this as "my faith" and the NT authors chose "by faith" is an interesting question, but probably not one I can answer completely. I think the simplest answer is that it is evident from the Septuagint, Aramaic targums, and New Testament quotations that Jews in the second temple period did not think about translation and quotation the same way that we do. They were willing to take what modern translators would call significant liberties when translating from Hebrew or quoting from the Septuagint, valuing the overall message rather than specific wording. In this case, I think it's conceivable that the MT, LXX, and NT are all driving at the same point, but using different wordings to convey this in the way they thought was clearest: The righteous live by faith. In who? - By faith in God (and all that entails, as you note). Of course, it's quite possible that there is a difference in meaning that's being drawn out, but I wouldn't feel comfortable taking a firm stance on that at the moment. Here's an interesting discussion of the same question that's worth reading, hope this helps! hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/49147/what-does-the-clause-%E1%BC%90%CE%BA-%CF%80%CE%AF%CF%83%CF%84%CE%B5%CF%8E%CF%82-%CE%BC%CE%BF%CF%85-add-to-habakkuk-24-lxx
Great question. There is a strong Jewish tradition of not pronouncing the name of God, and out of respect for that I use "Adonai", meaning Lord, instead. I mention this in my Ketef Hinnom scrolls video, and you can read more about it here: en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Tetragrammaton "If it is possible, as far as it depends on you, live at peace with everyone." Romans 12:18
@@manuscriptspotlight9077 is it better to respect men by disrespecting Elohim? I wouldn't want to be the one to tell Him I hid your name to please men. Especially if I turned his name into a title you would give to a man.
I certainly don't think substituting "The Lord" for God's name is disrespectful to him, especially since Jesus himself did this as recorded in the Gospels, as well as all New Testament writers (compare Mark 12:36 to Psalm 110:1, for one example). "Kyrios", meaning "Lord", is substituted for the name of God. Of course the argument can be made that Jesus wasn't originally speaking in Greek, but in any case at least the New Testament authors felt using "Lord" was appropriate. Personally I think it's totally fine to say God's name, but I see substituting "The Lord" as part of "becoming all things to all people". I believe there is room for disagreement, though, and understand if you think differently.
Cool. But I dislike your use of Adonay where God's name is clearly there. You can read it as "Jehovah, or Yehovah, or Yehowah, Yahveh, Yahweh, Yahuah", or other similarity. But please, don't say Adonay where it doesn't read as such. Be courageous and actually mention any of the possible variant of his divine Name, and not a title such as Lord (LORD). Please don't continue the unjustified "tradition" of avoiding the use of the name of the Most High, whose name must be proclaimed to everyone and never forget what it entails to know it. - Isa. 42:8; Psa. 83:18; 34:3.
Even in Hebrew because obviously that's not hebrew his name is 1 and for all generations he made it clear he revealed his name to Moses when he asked our Creator what is your name his reply Exodus 3:14 IAm that IAm ..in Hebrew ahayah Asher ahayah this is his name let this be known this codex was in the hands of converts who needed an translation this is the reason for the lack of his true name which he said he would remove out of the earth and scatter the sons of Jacob from 1 end of the earth to the other for his names sake . Israel was supposed to be the light to the gentiles but failed and was cursed by the laws of Moses in deut..28:68 where he made it clear he would send the sons of Jacob into Egypt by ships which he promised because israel moved him to jealousy be aware the negros blacks are sons of Judah/whydah are seen as captivess on the walls of ancient Babylon and seen as rulers of elam in persia artifacts believe not the jewish lie rev 2.9 they do lie they are not jews its us the blacks negroes bywords the ones yall love to hate we blessed by him our music our talent all nations cleave to our house oh jacob is the former of all things .. they will say. In the end surely our fathers have inherited lies teach us.
No jarring or distracting muzak, just the info I want. Thank you! Color coding the masorah was very illuminating. Well done.
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my wifes uncle writtenabout in the book aleppo codex, he turned it and the dead sea scrolls over to the state of isreal, rafi sutton
How does the text equivalent of Habakkuk 2:4 read?
The LXX reads differently as follows:
Habakkuk 2:4
If he should draw back, my soul has no pleasure in him: but the just shall live by
***my faith***.
The MT instead of "my faith" reads "his faith".
In the NT it is altered to "by faith".
What is intended in the LXX? Does "my faith" refer to YHWH's faith as He is the speaker?
Does the MT "his faith" refer to the faith including the commandments/covenant they received from YHWH, as one commentary stated.
Habakkuk 2:4 in the Aleppo codex reads the same as the standard MT reading of "his faith" (see pg. 22-200-r, starting at the bottom of the first column). Why the translators of the LXX chose to translate this as "my faith" and the NT authors chose "by faith" is an interesting question, but probably not one I can answer completely.
I think the simplest answer is that it is evident from the Septuagint, Aramaic targums, and New Testament quotations that Jews in the second temple period did not think about translation and quotation the same way that we do. They were willing to take what modern translators would call significant liberties when translating from Hebrew or quoting from the Septuagint, valuing the overall message rather than specific wording.
In this case, I think it's conceivable that the MT, LXX, and NT are all driving at the same point, but using different wordings to convey this in the way they thought was clearest: The righteous live by faith. In who? - By faith in God (and all that entails, as you note).
Of course, it's quite possible that there is a difference in meaning that's being drawn out, but I wouldn't feel comfortable taking a firm stance on that at the moment.
Here's an interesting discussion of the same question that's worth reading, hope this helps!
hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/49147/what-does-the-clause-%E1%BC%90%CE%BA-%CF%80%CE%AF%CF%83%CF%84%CE%B5%CF%8E%CF%82-%CE%BC%CE%BF%CF%85-add-to-habakkuk-24-lxx
2:19 doesnt say Adonay but is written YHWH with vowels so the written name is pronounced as YeHoWaH with the not spoken last H letter.
Haya in Hebrew is the English word for "was"
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Why do you say adonai? That's not what the codex spells.
Great question. There is a strong Jewish tradition of not pronouncing the name of God, and out of respect for that I use "Adonai", meaning Lord, instead. I mention this in my Ketef Hinnom scrolls video, and you can read more about it here:
en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Tetragrammaton
"If it is possible, as far as it depends on you, live at peace with everyone."
Romans 12:18
@@manuscriptspotlight9077 is it better to respect men by disrespecting Elohim? I wouldn't want to be the one to tell Him I hid your name to please men. Especially if I turned his name into a title you would give to a man.
I certainly don't think substituting "The Lord" for God's name is disrespectful to him, especially since Jesus himself did this as recorded in the Gospels, as well as all New Testament writers (compare Mark 12:36 to Psalm 110:1, for one example). "Kyrios", meaning "Lord", is substituted for the name of God. Of course the argument can be made that Jesus wasn't originally speaking in Greek, but in any case at least the New Testament authors felt using "Lord" was appropriate.
Personally I think it's totally fine to say God's name, but I see substituting "The Lord" as part of "becoming all things to all people". I believe there is room for disagreement, though, and understand if you think differently.
Adonis a greek god?
Cool. But I dislike your use of Adonay where God's name is clearly there. You can read it as "Jehovah, or Yehovah, or Yehowah, Yahveh, Yahweh, Yahuah", or other similarity. But please, don't say Adonay where it doesn't read as such. Be courageous and actually mention any of the possible variant of his divine Name, and not a title such as Lord (LORD). Please don't continue the unjustified "tradition" of avoiding the use of the name of the Most High, whose name must be proclaimed to everyone and never forget what it entails to know it. - Isa. 42:8; Psa. 83:18; 34:3.
It can only be read as Yehovah. He only gave Moses one way to say it. Yahweh and Yehovah does not mean the same thing.
Even in Hebrew because obviously that's not hebrew his name is 1 and for all generations he made it clear he revealed his name to Moses when he asked our Creator what is your name his reply Exodus 3:14 IAm that IAm ..in Hebrew ahayah Asher ahayah this is his name let this be known this codex was in the hands of converts who needed an translation this is the reason for the lack of his true name which he said he would remove out of the earth and scatter the sons of Jacob from 1 end of the earth to the other for his names sake . Israel was supposed to be the light to the gentiles but failed and was cursed by the laws of Moses in deut..28:68 where he made it clear he would send the sons of Jacob into Egypt by ships which he promised because israel moved him to jealousy be aware the negros blacks are sons of Judah/whydah are seen as captivess on the walls of ancient Babylon and seen as rulers of elam in persia artifacts believe not the jewish lie rev 2.9 they do lie they are not jews its us the blacks negroes bywords the ones yall love to hate we blessed by him our music our talent all nations cleave to our house oh jacob is the former of all things .. they will say. In the end surely our fathers have inherited lies teach us.