Latin's Case System
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- Опубліковано 23 січ 2012
- One of the big hurdles for any beginning Latin student is dealing with the case system, which essentially does not exist in English. This video is a basic overview of the six main cases in Latin: the nominative, genitive, dative, accusative, ablative, and vocative.
I'm a Latin teacher myself and I've been using your channel for a couple of years not. They're clear and well-made, one of my most-used resources.
Thanks!
+latintutorial - Will you help me?
I am new to Latin and am having trouble parsing this, "et cucum guidem potentiae admontum in culinam obsonium duxit."My pars for cases: cucum (Nom) / potentiae (Pred Nom of admonium) / admonitum (Nom); in cucum (Acc) obsonium (Acc) duxit (verb) My translation: And, being strongly reminded, the cook took the provisions into the kitchen.
Good parsing, but you have the wrong case for the absolute construction. Latin requires the Ablative here, not the Nominative: "Et cuco guide potentia admonito, in culinam obsonium duxit."
Andrew Williams
Đ
Sure is
Good luck. I think I've covered all of the first four chapters of Wheelock's with the videos I have currently made, so please use those as a resource! Also, feel free to ask me specific questions when they arise. That's what I'm here for (well, kind of).
Im a third year latin student an i still cant remember this
me too
Same
Thank God I'm not the only one!
@@rebeccamelusine it is easy, just don't make yourself too worried about it; you need time, as Germans also say:
Gut Ding will Weile haben
@@armankamal3879 most people don't know what that means in English lol
you said "Latin" so softly in the last sentence that I thought you said "you'll get far in life, trust me" and I fount it hilarious
In your sentence, "hair" (coma) would be the accusative because it's receiving the action of the cutting (The question "What did I cut?" gives us the accusative). The "with" is going to introduce the ablative noun, since it shows the means by which I cut my hair. Since "scissors" (forfices) is an ablative of means, it would not use a preposition. So it would be something like "comam forficibus tondeo," depending on what vocabulary you should be using and if "cut" is present, not perfect.
O My Goodness, This is the best Latin video series ever!!!!
I have Shared your channel to all my Accelerated Latin Classmates.
Thank You and God Bless!
Good sir, this may be the best and most straightforward explaination out there,
I can't thank you enough for making this.
I am so happy I found your account! These videos are helping my get through my VCE Latin. Please never stop making these🙀
Great job. Spanish/Portuguese speakers can associate "Dative" with "dar" : to give. The person who gives is in Nominative, the person who receives is in Dative. English also retains a relict "Whom".
In general, as a native Polish speaker (7 cases) I have to say that the cases help to express things more precisely, and for us it's much easier to quickly understand a phrase with cases, than a phrase without them. English is sometimes difficult to understand, since the same word, without cases or conjugation, may be a noun or a verb, and there is only one form (export/to export). In Polish, it's "eksport" (noun), "eksportu" (of the export), "eksportować" (to export), "eksportuję" (I export), and many more endings. That's why you directly understand the meaning of the word even without reading the whole sentence.
Of course I know it is difficult for a non-native speaker to memorize all the endings, but there is really a beautiful LOGIC inside of it.
+Wojciech Kostowski Can't you see the illogic of defending all those different endings when all English needs is preopositions and word order to get the job done much more simply?
+Jack Wright Well, I don't defend anything, we just speak like that: the Polish, the Russians, etc. and Latin was also spoken that way.
I just tried to express what we feel when we speak. For us it is very logic, and English is simple, but something is lost.
Imagine we go a step further, and we would say: Yesterday I see him. I never see him before.
You can still understand because there is 'yesterday' and 'never before'. But you probably feel that it sounds ugly. This is because the verb tense HELPS you to identify more details. Exactly like this, all these grammar endings HELP us to identify more details.
THIS IS JUST MY PRIVATE OPINION from a point of view of a native speaker of Polish:)
+TehNapalm I have no experience in on-line teaching. Maybe we could organize an experiment about july, now I have no free time available:)
Wojciech Kostowski Verb tenses are far more important than wildly irrational and inconsistent noun and adjective inflections!
Someone told me though that Chinese does not have explicit tenses but indicates times indirectly somehow. To me that also sounds like more work than necessary.
I know some Russian and generally like it, but when nouns use the same endings to mean different cases depending on its gender I get very frustrated with it - especially when there's a preposition in front of it that would unambiguously provide the same meaning!
You're just trying to pick a fight and impose your opinion. I am a native Spanish speaker, and sometimes hate how ambiguous my language is. I wish we had cases like Latin, Polish, Russian, Sanskrit, etc. It makes things clearer, more precise, and shorter.
Something like "Le di el caballo de su abuelo" (I gave him/her his/her grandfather's horse) could be rendered (in a pseudospanish language with cases) something like "Le di caballOM seI abuelI"
"Le di el caballo de su abuelo"
"Le di caballom sei abueli"
Cases are great. Maybe Wojciech can translate such a phrase into polish :).
Thankfully my mother language possesses declensions as well, that helps tremendously in my Latin studies
And in Croatian - seven cases: Nominative, Genitive, Dative, Accusative and Vocative have same function as in Latin (not endings, but function in synthax), but Ablative is "divided" into Locative (about/on/in/at) and Instrumental (by/with). The endings are more complex: singular and plural; masculine, feminine and neuter; but more then four declensions, also different declensions for adjectives and pronouns. Complicated as all Slavic languages are, specially South Slavic (Slovenian, Croatian, Bosnian, Serbian, Montenegrin, Macedonian and Bulgarian; considering also that, from the point of pure linguistics, Croatian, Bosnian, Serbian and Montenegrin form one pluricentric continuum known as "BCS" - "Bosnian/Croatian/Serbian", during Yougoslavia it was known as "Serbo-Croatian" or "Croatian and Serbian").
Love this thank you🙏
as a spanish learner hearing “tres horas” pronounced like that really blindsided me
Exactly why I believe Spanish is in some way or form is much closer to Latin rather than Italian as what many linguists claim to be.
Gumby Snacks In terms of vocabulary, Italian is more similar to Latin than any of the other big five Romance languages. Sardinian is even closer to Latin and in many cases is basically dumb Latin. Spanish might have some similar sounds to Latin because words in often end in consonants like in Latin. In terms of grammar, Romanian is the closest with 3 cases and keeping neuter gender.
@@gambigambigambi Stupid theory. I'm Puerto Rican and we are the most evolved romance language.
@@birons3708 Have you SEEN French? That's obviously more "evolved."
I read this in Wikipedia -
First is the closest and the last is the most distant.
Sardinian
Italian
Spanish
Romanian
Occitan
Portuguese
and
French.
Shalom from india, Mumbai
You are the one of best teacher that explain very well
These videos are helping me a ton! I am acing my latin exams. Thanks!
these are great videos for my classes for fresh starters in school, thank you so much for these helpfully amazing videos
Amazing video, it helps more than sitting in latin lesson. Your videoes are legendary
Man i hated studying terminology for med school so fricking much cause in my class the tracher made everything so complicated like damn. Its a blessing that u found ur channel thank u so much
I'm glad to help!
yassssss! everything i needed to understand properly in one video, thanks you're the best
I have a huge test tomorrow and im in year three latin. This taught me a lot thanks!
Another great and instructive video. By the way, shouldn't the "i" in "aedificō" be short? Like in the infinitive form, "aedificāre"?
Cramming in two units of Latin before my final. Thanks for the help.
Hi, I love your videos. Could you make a video about sentence analysis in latin? What is a good systematic way to translate a sentence?
taking a final tomarrow and your video helped me understand latin a lot better
You explain it well, the conjugation of nouns is similar to the Scandinavian languages.
Thank you so much, this video really helped me get my head around Latin!
(Finally!)
I study Polish which has 7 cases, and although I have now got to grips with it, it is still the hardest aspect of learning. I think I may choose Latin as one of my future modules of study.
Best layout I have seen on a tutorial for latin
This video explains noun cases pretty well
I don't learn Latin but Polish which also has 7 cases and even though my mother tongue uses 4 of them it's pretty tough to learn so I can only imagine how hard it can be for people who's mother tongue doesn't use them for the most part (the only example that comes to my mind in English is me/my his/hers etc.)
Still you explain it very well and it's very interesting :)
What's your mother tongue? Languages with cases are hard to learn but interesting to me as my language doesn't even use any kind of it, unlike English which still has cases in its pronouns and possessive case ('s)
In Russian we have a nearly identical case system as in latin, so we can just learn the endings and use the cases when needed. It is kind of funny to see the English speakers struggle with them.
P.S.
It is a good a good video though.
ecks dee
Iam Cleaver you got so close
Actually, your case system is more complicated, because you have SIX major cases as opposed to Latin's five: Nominative, Genitive, Dative, Accusative, instrumental, and Prepositional (the last two are served by the Latin Ablative). If Russian has a Vocative or a Locative case, I am unaware of them.
Lee Cox , locative still exists in some 2nd declension nouns, due to merging of the 2nd and 4th declensions in protoslavic language. In other declensions locative is identical to prepositional case. Vocative is still present in the russian language only by archaic forms of words from old slavic language. For example, the word "отец" (father, [otets] ) has its own vocative case "отче" [otche], but it's generally not recognized now as a separate case in russian and is used stylistically, though it was known as the 7th case before revolution in 1917.
.
English, we love you. You are difficult for foreigners to learn, you have many slang and technical words and dialects, but to we native speakers, you are just right. ❤️
what I wonder about, how did something so complicated like a Case system or word order evolve in the first place? I wonder about if we humans have some kind of instinct of creating gramatical rules...
+Salvatore Escoti
so that we don't spend time trying to figure out what the sentence means, less communication error, etc
for example, the boys see the girls. knowing English grammar, we know who did the seeing: the boys, etc
however, let's pretend we have a language that does it O-V-S, then we know who did the seeing: the girls
in latin, word order can sometimes become irrelevant: puellas pueri vident or puellas vident pueri or pueri vident puellas and you won't get confused (theoretically) who did the seeing: the boys, in all 3 sentences
+Mi Wallflower Except that learning all these absurd and often irregular inflections only complicates things when prepositions and word order convey just as much meaning far more simply! Add to that the notion of 'gender' producing other whole sets of endings and you get millions of people tearing their hair out trying to learn all of this.
Add to that verb conjugations with all their crazy rules, and maybe you can see the point. Turkish verbs are completely regular, by the way, and that greatly simplifies the learning process, but for pure distilled simplicity and clarity you need Esperanto or its descendant Ido. These are completely regular, have no case endings for nouns or 'person' endings for verbs, and their entire grammar fits on one.single.page!
No one disputes that Latin grammar and inflexions are complex, and Esperanto is almost trivially easy.
However, each language is what it is, and if one wants to learn Latin then railing against the rules is simply wasting one's effort. Personally, I'm learning Latin because of its complexity, as an exercise to stop my 62 year old brain from freezing into senility, so I say BRING IT ON! Once I've got Latin more or less straight in my head, I intend to return to Esperanto!
***** Expressing an opinion is a wasted effort? What are you doing on a discussion board then?
As it turns out I am studying Latin for the same reason you are, *because* of its complexity; also Russian for the same reason. That doesn't mean I think any of it is necessary or sensible.
Jack Wright Whoops! Guess I came on too strong. My bad. Good luck with learning Latin AND Russian.
Glad to help!
Excellent video !!! I clearly understand what you have explained !!! Thank you 🤗🤗🤗🤗🤗🤗
Extremely helpful! Thank you so much for making this!
No, you have to look to the full verb, which consists of two parts: vulneratus est is perfect passive, and vulneratus erat is pluperfect passive.
Ignore the literal way to translate these phrases. English does our "perfect passive" as "he was wounded". In Latin, "he is wounded" is the present passive vulneratur.
Thank you for this video! this was really helpful! I'm watching the ads to make sure you get paid!
Haha, you're the best. Thanks!
@andrewgpayne3 Thanks. These definitely are designed in a way to complement Wheelock's and other texts. Spread the word, and good luck!
You are a life saver
this actually addressed many of my doubts in my elementary russian (stuck somewhere)....tks
this was so helpful! thank you!!
these videos are making wheelock's latin soooo much simpler
Great explanation as always.
However, is "gladiator vulneratus est" (the gladiator was wounded) correct? Shouldn't it be something like "gladiator vulneratus est" (the gladiator is wounded) and "gladiator vulneratus erat" (the gladiator was wounded) since "was" means it's imperfect?
Thank you, love your vidoes!
The "American" order actually dates back to Antiquity (Greek then Roman grammarians) and is still in use in Europe, namely Greece, Italy, Germany etc. :-)
Great lesson, I've watched it several times. I noticed a small mistake around 5:05, under 3. possession, where 'horse' is outline in pink corresponding to 'mihi'?
thanks for uploading all these useful videos!
you really saved my rear end today in latin class, buddy. :D
Good explanation about Latin Cases.
ahahah in slovak language we have declension too. i've never realized it was so difficult
We had to learn declensions of our own language in gymnasium (I live in Serbia). I have never learned them all, it was incredibly hard, if I weren't native speaker I would never be able to learn Serbian. I can imagine the pain of somebody trying to learn it for any reason (let's say his girlfriend is Serbian)
Salve daľšiemu nadšencovi Latinčiny
@ Slavic languages have this
bro you have no idea how helpful this was i thought i was going to fail my test but then i watched this and i got a 90% so thanks
Portuguese kept declensions too, but only for verbs ( That I'm aware of ). There are 3, based on whether the verb inflected in the infinitive ends in -ar, -er or -ir. Exemples would be amar ( to love ), saber ( to know ) or dormir ( to sleep ). Verbs inflect in diferent ways, but almost always regularly within their declension. There is also a weird fourth quasi-declension that contains only the verb pôr ( to put ) and a handful of verbs derived from it, like compor ( to compose, as in to write music ), justapor ( to juxtapose ), dispor ( to lay out ), and a few others.
Verbs do not have declensions, they are inflected but in conjugations. Nouns, adjectives, pronouns and some numerals have declensions (inflected or usually via prepositions for nouns i.e. in all Romance languages, so in Portuguese).
So Portuguese verbs in
-ar, -er, -ir are inflected through conjugations (person, singular and plural, tenses, moods) which have origin (as all Romance languages) in Latin and changes came from Vulgar Latin - Proto-Romance - "Proto-Iberian-Romance: Latin passive system lost, Latin future lost and changed etc.). Actually nouns in Portuguese have "declensions" (cases), but not through inflected sufixes like in Latin, but using prepositions (like Italian di for Genitive or a for Dative etc.), nouns are inflected only to denote plural.
Verbs don't have declensions.
I'm learning Latin of my own volition and I thought it was going to be easy since I know it's three most famous descendants fluently (Spanish, French and Italian), but I encountered these cases and the three genders and the declensions and I now see how wrong I was. I guess I may as well get used to them now since I heard Russian is similar in complexity.
Darkicity How's it going now? Once I memorized all the endings, Latin seemed super easy. Until I tried reading something more advanced. . . But I wouldn't say the cases are the hardest part, perhaps just intimidating at first.
Yes, Russian have 6 cases (sometimes more) and 3 grammatical genders
Hi! I've just started learning Latin and your videos are a great help. Could you please clarify a point that you made during the video?
2. On both sides of a linking verbs.
Forgive me if this is a stupid question but...in your example of "Canis est fessus"..
Does this mean that adjectives (not just nouns) must also be declined ? and that they must match the case and of the subject?
I'm sure you've already figured this out (lol), but adjectives match in case number and gender.
@@pimplecheese337 lol omg here i am 8 years later. thank you!
Mi è piaciuto il video. Hai una buona tonalità anche se devi imparare anche molte cose, però ricorda che nessuno é perfetto(p.s. the word “ci” you were perplexed about generally means “a noi”(to us) .Though Italian it’s my first language I understand it can be challenging especially as regards the rules in the grammar. The most important concept to accept if you actually want to learn Italian is understand that as all other languages it’s not just a language it’s a construct and a unique way of expression remarkably unique and intricate. For me it represent part of my identity and I honestly can’t imagine not speaking it
Would it be possible to receive these slideshows in powerpoint format? I would find it extremely helpful to be able to print them and study them in this way, though I do, of course, enjoy watching the videos as well.
These are not slideshows in any form, but actual videos. So, unfortunately, no.
You're welcome. Your prof probably lay the foundation, and my videos just helped bring everything into focus. Best of luck on the exam!
Being korean, our language is completely different from latin, so it's a bit hard to learn. But your videos really do help me understand:D
I started learning Latin in Denmark, and they used the British order mentioned at the beginning of the video. I have a feeling it will be weird to change
On the declension chart why do some letter have accents like ō? Also, what does "1st, 2nd, 3rd" etc mean?
You must be doing the Cambridge Latin Course Stage 6? The difference between the -bat/-bant and -vit is tense. The -bat/-bant is for the Imperfect Tense (the continual past), while the -vit is for the Perfect Tense (the simple/regular past). You would translate the imperfect as "was _____ing" while the perfect is "_____ed".
I do have videos on these two tenses on my channel, although it covers all forms of the verb, not just the third person (he/she and they). Check those out.
thanks,this is so detailed!!!But may i ask is there anything to do with nouns in Dative case and adjectives?If do,are they changed after adjective's declensions?
+Hammer Huge I'm not sure I understand your question. Could you please provide an example?
sorry i didn't make it clear...i mean when some word modifying a noun,it's always hard for me to tell whether it's an adjective or a noun in dative case
latintutorial exempli causa,"facultas videndi"
+Hammer Huge A lot of it is just expectation. The example you gave has a gerund in the genitive case (videndi) after a nominative case noun (facultas). Some adjectives take dative case nouns, like similis (similar to) or idoneus (suitable to). But otherwise, when a noun is "modifying" (I'd use the word "qualifying") another noun, it's often in the genitive case.
+Hammer Huge Also, when in doubt about a noun or adjective, look up the word (and remember). There's no real connection between adjectives and dative-case-nouns.
Hi, I do have a question from your video. In 5:10, in mihi est equus, the phrase 'a horse' is highlighted. Was this intended, or should it be 'I have' instead? Thanks in advance.
hey i got a question . If I say the sentence "I cut my hair with a scissors" , what noun is in the accusative case and what is in the ablative case 'cause i see the word with i think it should be ablative. And translate it for me also. Thanks
How would you explain the Imperfect and pluperfect Subjunctive
Codius Magistro Salutem Dicit: Do you have any videos on the double dative? I’m having trouble with this grammatical idea.
+TheLingoChannel Not yet.
8:38 Yah, I'm holding one in my hand right now.
Thanks so much!
Thanks with such a detail explanation :-)
Wow, this was a very good video.
By the way, Ancient Greek is kind of similar; it has the same cases, except ablative.
Yes I think there that it is the dative of everything that takes on the ablative sense.
Question as I'm just learning latin from the beginning in my free time, since Latin is inflected when you used the singular case for the verb "aedifico" from the example "ego villam tibi aedifico" we don't actually need to write "ego" in the beginning right ? Because the ending "aedifico" is already in in the first person singular case, or am I missing a rule?
That’s right. And most of the time Latin will omit the subject.
@@latintutorial oh alright fair enough, thank you ! Love your videos by the by
Hi there, I've got a question on the genitive. If I say "gladius militis", the genitve falls on the soldier, who's the one who owns the sword. In "pars urbis", the city is the thing that "owns" the part. But if I say "Puella maximae pulchritudinis", the genitve falls on the "thing" that is "owned" by the girl.
How do I know where the genitive shall be used?
Thanks in advance.
+Pandemoniumusic There are different uses of the genitive. Many of the genitives that you'll see are possession, like your gladius militis. But there's also the partitive genitive (genitive of the whole), the pars urbis, part of the city, where the genitive represents the "whole". And the third major genitive use is the genitive of description, puella maximae pulchritudinis (a girl of greatest beauty), where the genitive illustrates a descriptive quality and is always found with an adjective. These uses of the genitive are all separate and distinct from each other. In general, the genitive expresses the relationship of one noun to another, not just possession.
+latintutorial OK thanks a lot :)
gladius militis > soldier's sword ; pars urbis > a part of the city
+Pandemoniumusic and puella maximae pulchritudinis > a girl of extremly beauty (it is probably an Elative and
probably not a Superlative)
Very astute, aortablue. Yes, adjectives must be declined and they must match the case of the word they are describing, not necessarily the subject. So with "canis est fessus", the adjective fessus is describing canis (it's the tired dog), so they are in the same case. If you were using the genitive case and saying "of the tired dog", then both "tired" and "dog" would be in the genitive case. (Note, adjectives actually also agree in number, singular/plural, and gender, m/f/n, as well.)
This was uploaded on my twelfth birthday :D
Do you feel that an understanding of Latin would be beneficial when learning other languages which focus heavily on noun declination?
+Griptonify Definitely. Many students of languages like German or Russian struggle at first with noun declension and the concept of cases. Students who have already learned about these cases (they don't really change and are the same in Latin, German, and Russian) can easily apply their knowledge to the new language and pass quickly over the grammar that is difficult for everyone else.
at 6:53 why is the sentence gladiator violenter vulneratus est INSTEAD of gladiator violenter vulneratus erat? Since the English translation is the gladiator was wounded violently?
+Ken G Even though the est looks present, the verb group vulneratus est is the perfect passive form. vulneratur is the "is wounded" form (present passive).
This est has me confused too. In Moreland & Fleischer it says: Malumne est bellum gerere. Translated: Is it evil to conduct war. Can't really figure out the use of the est. My best guess is that 'Bellum gerere' is a noun and the est modifies it somehow.
Walser52 You're almost right. Bellum gerere is an infinitive phrase (the infinitive is gerere) "to wage war" and it's functioning as the subject of est (so it's kind of like a noun). This really is separate from the vulneratus est question above, where the est is often considered to be just part of the verb unit.
Oh, thanks a lot.
A month ago I ran into a video of yours and have been declining nouns and party invitations ever since. Gotten down to adjectives :)
This is soooooo helpful!!!
Is the Latin ablative (its basic usage, not the special cases) similar to the Russian instrumental? на пример: я пишу *карандашом* - I write *with a pencil*
Yes!
With the sentence under the dative of possession, for 'mihi est equus', wouldn't that translate to the horse is mine? Just making sure because I wasn't sure if you can translate 'est' as 'have'. Wouldn't 'habet' work better within the sentence?
+Madeline Corrales Yeah, I guess you could do that with your translation, although it's technically "the horse is for me" (or something equivalent). But just because the Romans could have used habet in this case doesn't mean that they did, and your example is a case where it's perfectly fine to use the dative of possession instead of habet.
6:13 wait, what? If the object of the sentence is taking the same case with the duration of time of the action described, how do we distinguish the object from the time duration? Lets say, Saturn creates five days of time for three hours. We now have to say "Saturnus quinque dies, tres horas facit". How do we distinguish the two, he could have made three hours in five days instead, if the cases of object and time duration are the same.
I noticed the Objective Genitive was not mentioned in the Genitive slide. Do you have an explanation for this use of the Genitive in another tutorial?
+C Benjamin Tracy Not yet. Hopefully later this year.
Thank you!
Has anyone got a worksheet linked to this video that students can complete whilst watching it?
Can a clause every have two nouns declined in the same case?
Does English only have a quasi genitive case though?
Isn't it rather the only case that is still marked while the others are not?
I know that's nitpicky, but I seriously wonder 😄
If I would want to say "brightest of/among stars" which case should I then use for the noun 'stars'?
stellae, right?
Great lesson!
Thought I was gonna fail my midterm, thanks for the save
Thanks for the info and for directing me to some ancient grammars!
what form is novi in the vocative example, marce, quid novi
If a whole subclause expresses time or manner and thereby functions as an adverbial, can all the words in the clause then be written in the ablative?
For example?
@@latintutorial
The first sentence in with "evocato ad superos divo rege." This subclause functions as a time adverbial. Wouldn't that explain why evocato and divo rege are written in the ablative case?
tandemque evocato ad superos divo rege, desolatæ viduitatis
solitudinem regio prorsus animo et pari tulit constantia, ac moderationem, qua
antea augustissimi tori consortium
Finally, once the divine king was summoned to the
heavens, she suffered the loneliness of desolating widowhood with royal mind and displayed
moderation, too, with the same resolution, with which she previously carried out her august
married life […]
@@latintutorial Or would it an ablative absolute? That would make more sense?
At 4.05
Does that mean that Genitive is not possession? It means possession sometimes but is not it self meaning possession? If that is the case what does genitive mean? Ty
Beginner here. Only level 1.
Michael Greenwood Genetive often means possession in cases like: "gladius gladiātōris" = "the gladiator's sword" or "the sword of the gladiator." He just said that as we say things like "fear of dogs", the same genetive construction can be used in Latin, "timor canum". However, in such cases, though the genetive is used, it does not exactly indicate possession. "Timor canum" does not mean that the dogs literally own the fear, but that the fear is associated with dogs.
Thanks bro
We are doing translations in latin, could you do a video or just explain to me the meaning and difference between the endings -bat and -bant and -vit
This helps sooo much thsnk you. Now I might be ready for my finals xD
would it be gladius puellas, the girls sword?
im just starting out trying to teach myself (ecclesiastical) latin but man I still don't get it. well somewhat, but I struggled on translating "for the purpose of the glory of the church" thinking it was something much more than just "ad gloriam ecclesiae"
what use is sine (without)? ablative of accompaniment or ablative of separation or?
Ablative of separation. Ablative of accompaniment takes the opposite preposition, "cum" ("with")/
Each second got information!!
Glad it was helpful!
I Love your channel and it helps alot but man... I cannot wrap my head around some of this Latin stuff.
Thx so much helped alot