Once you get past all the degeneracy on the internet you realize you can educate yourself for free to a college level - thanks khan academy, for making my college work make sense
Sal, I'm wondering why you didn't just take the u-sub of sin(x) from the third step after you replaced cos^2(x) with 1-sin^2(x) which would have canceled out the other cos(x) and left you to integrate 1-u^2, which would have given you u-u^3/3 and the same answer... seems that the distribution was unnecessary? Am I missing something?
Once you get past all the degeneracy on the internet you realize you can educate yourself for free to a college level - thanks khan academy, for making my college work make sense
thanks buddy good vid
thanks khan people
Sal, I'm wondering why you didn't just take the u-sub of sin(x) from the third step after you replaced cos^2(x) with 1-sin^2(x) which would have canceled out the other cos(x) and left you to integrate 1-u^2, which would have given you u-u^3/3 and the same answer... seems that the distribution was unnecessary? Am I missing something?
That was my thought. Mind you I'd have used the identity cos(3x) = 4cos^3(x)-3cos(x) cos^3(x) = 1/4(cos(3x)+3cos(x))