Sir i have read the passages 1-27. In some of them I was easily able to answer the questions correctly. But passages like this are really hard to understand. The CAT exam is in November. And passages like these are making me worry about how i will be able to be a good reader for the RCs in the exams. Can you please suggest something so that I can improve myself at RCs like this
In Q 5 invalidate the inversion doesn't mean ki pehle diyan alladin nhi hai and then fir isko invalidate kro ki vo hi tha alladin ? Bcz hme inversion yaani ki ulte ko inverse krke invalidate krna hai ?
Sir , in the final question it says "invalidate the inversion" "flip the script" implies alladin was written by diyab inversion of that would be alladin was not written by diyab now invalidating the inversion would mean we have to prove alladin was written by diyab, Am i right? or Have I misunderstood?
For question 5 confusion, my thought: We don't have to inverse the flip the script, the question describes that "flip the script" is in itself a form of inversion... "invalidate the inversion 'flip the script' refers to. " The paper setter is describing that flip thing is a type of inversion to help us understand that its meaning is something in contrast, inverted, opposite.
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Sir i have read the passages 1-27. In some of them I was easily able to answer the questions correctly. But passages like this are really hard to understand. The CAT exam is in November. And passages like these are making me worry about how i will be able to be a good reader for the RCs in the exams. Can you please suggest something so that I can improve myself at RCs like this
In Q 5 invalidate the inversion doesn't mean ki pehle diyan alladin nhi hai and then fir isko invalidate kro ki vo hi tha alladin ? Bcz hme inversion yaani ki ulte ko inverse krke invalidate krna hai ?
Not able to score, this RC felt very hard to understand the Passage as well as the qtns. Lil worried about this.
Good rc scored 5 out of 5 ❤❤
Sir , in the final question it says "invalidate the inversion"
"flip the script" implies alladin was written by diyab
inversion of that would be alladin was not written by diyab
now invalidating the inversion would mean we have to prove alladin was written by diyab, Am i right? or Have I misunderstood?
For question 5 confusion, my thought: We don't have to inverse the flip the script, the question describes that "flip the script" is in itself a form of inversion...
"invalidate the inversion 'flip the script' refers to. " The paper setter is describing that flip thing is a type of inversion to help us understand that its meaning is something in contrast, inverted, opposite.