Yield to call and Yield to worst (for the @CFA Level 1 exam)

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  • Опубліковано 13 гру 2024

КОМЕНТАРІ • 7

  • @jameshesketh5590
    @jameshesketh5590 Рік тому +2

    First call price would more likely be 103 (ie. half the coupon)

    • @letmeexplaincfa
      @letmeexplaincfa  Рік тому

      Thanks for that insight

    • @travisbradfield1311
      @travisbradfield1311 7 місяців тому

      Hi, why is that?

    • @jameshesketh5590
      @jameshesketh5590 7 місяців тому +1

      @@travisbradfield1311 It fairly standard convention in the High Yield bond market. The first call option for the issuer to redeem the bonds at a set price is typically set at 50% of the coupon declining ratably towards par as the bond nears maturity. The second call price is typically half again (ie. 25% of the coupon) and the third half again, or possibly par (depending on the term and initial coupon).

    • @travisbradfield1311
      @travisbradfield1311 7 місяців тому

      @@jameshesketh5590 Cheers thanks, James! Makes sense. Happy to learn something new thanks

  • @jonathanward7987
    @jonathanward7987 6 місяців тому +1

    Getting crazy answers with this yield to call:
    Corporate Bond
    Annual coupon = 4%
    Frequency = semi-annual
    Current Price per 100 of par = 91
    Call Price schedule after one year = 101.25
    The work book comes out with r = 0.0762 x 2 = 0.1512 if the bond is called after one year.
    My calculator is coming up with a completely different number.
    If anyone can explain how to get this number to me like I am 5 years old I would be grateful!

    • @letmeexplaincfa
      @letmeexplaincfa  6 місяців тому +2

      Use the Time Value of Money with the following inputs:
      FV = 101.25
      PV = - 91
      PMT = 2
      N = 2
      Now, press CPT followed by I/Y and you should see a yield of 7.62 (quoted for a 6-month period), which you need to multiply by 2.