In the definition of Riot it states…”threaten unlawful violence”…however the courts (R v Jefferson 1994) state that a person must be shown to have used unlawful violence not just threaten. I’m a bit confused. Also can a person using violent behaviour towards property as well as a person?
I have stalkers on my phone and internet at home abusing me
In the definition of Riot it states…”threaten unlawful violence”…however the courts (R v Jefferson 1994) state that a person must be shown to have used unlawful violence not just threaten. I’m a bit confused. Also can a person using violent behaviour towards property as well as a person?