My big question would be why in Romans 7:3 "she is called an adulteress". Not a woman who has commit adultery but an actual title of adulteress. For example I am a housewife but if I no longer have a house or a husband my title would cease. I would be back to just being a woman or whatever (maybe I am a divorced homeless woman). Can I be a child of God and an adulteress? If that is now my title married to a divorced man (no Biblical reason) and God says no adulterers will inherit the kingdom of God... How does one get rid of that title? I would assume end the remarriage (guilty of divorce so repent) and then I would no longer could be identified as an adulteress as I am no longer in such a relationship. My condition of marriage changed so that no one could call me that. Thoughts??? How can you live in sin if you know the truth? Sin you will but hopefully not practicing the act of sin but convicted of it. Change of heart, change of mind, change course... Willing to hear opposition.
If you would like to ask a question or make a comment about the material presented in this video, please use the contact form at this link: bibletalk.tv/contact/video/0l8JjgmAHdM
Dear Michael, Why does Jesus never issue a broad prohibition against marrying any divorced man as He does against marrying any divorced woman (Matt. 5:32, Mat. 19:9, Luke 16:18)? I observe the same gender specific prohibition in the teaching of Paul (I Cor. 7:39). Jesus could have very easily said, "Whoever marries a divorced person commits adultery." if that is what He intended to say, but it is nowhere in scripture. You can reach me at martyer1949@yahoo.com. Thanks for your help! Very Sincerely, Martin Rust
The teaching on marriage and divorce centered on the man because in Jewish society only a man could initiate a divorce, not a woman. This may not be the only reason for this emphasis but it does explain why the teachings were usually given from the male perspective. - MM
I respectfully disagree with you Pastor. You asked for an example where a 2nd marriage was wrong in the Bible. John the baptist clearly condemned Herod"s adulterous remarriage to his brother"s Phillips wife Herodius!
He condemned it because Herod ran off with his brother’s wife while she was still legally married to his brother. In addition to this, Herodias was also his niece through marriage. His marriage to her was not questioned and denounced because it was a second marriage, it was denounced because it was illegal according to Jewish law to marry your brother’s wife, especially if she was still married to your brother. - MM
The reason why a man who divorced his wife could not take her back again was because she was "defiled". Why was she defiled? Because she slept with another man! Therefore...the sexual act is sinful as well....not just the initial divorce.
Or you can consider that Deut 24:1-4 has more to do about dissolving a marraige in its betrothal stage, and not in its consummated stage. If a woman gets betrothed after lying with a different man, then is divorced out of the marriage to the betrothed when discovered (perhaps due to childbirth) to be married to the man who seduced her, and he shall not put her away all the days of his life.
My big question would be why in Romans 7:3 "she is called an adulteress". Not a woman who has commit adultery but an actual title of adulteress. For example I am a housewife but if I no longer have a house or a husband my title would cease. I would be back to just being a woman or whatever (maybe I am a divorced homeless woman). Can I be a child of God and an adulteress? If that is now my title married to a divorced man (no Biblical reason) and God says no adulterers will inherit the kingdom of God... How does one get rid of that title? I would assume end the remarriage (guilty of divorce so repent) and then I would no longer could be identified as an adulteress as I am no longer in such a relationship. My condition of marriage changed so that no one could call me that. Thoughts??? How can you live in sin if you know the truth? Sin you will but hopefully not practicing the act of sin but convicted of it. Change of heart, change of mind, change course... Willing to hear opposition.
If you would like to ask a question or make a comment about the material presented in this video, please use the contact form at this link: bibletalk.tv/contact/video/0l8JjgmAHdM
John jumped Herod not because he remarried, but because he unlawfully took his brothers wife(lev. 16:18) 28:11
Dear Michael,
Why does Jesus never issue a broad prohibition against marrying any divorced man as He does against marrying any divorced woman (Matt. 5:32, Mat. 19:9, Luke 16:18)? I observe the same gender specific prohibition in the teaching of Paul (I Cor. 7:39). Jesus could have very easily said, "Whoever marries a divorced person commits adultery." if that is what He intended to say, but it is nowhere in scripture. You can reach me at martyer1949@yahoo.com. Thanks for your help!
Very Sincerely,
Martin Rust
The teaching on marriage and divorce centered on the man because in Jewish society only a man could initiate a divorce, not a woman. This may not be the only reason for this emphasis but it does explain why the teachings were usually given from the male perspective.
- MM
Referencd verses shows about man also
I respectfully disagree with you Pastor. You asked for an example where a 2nd marriage was wrong in the Bible. John the baptist clearly condemned Herod"s adulterous remarriage to his brother"s Phillips wife Herodius!
He condemned it because Herod ran off with his brother’s wife while she was still legally married to his brother. In addition to this, Herodias was also his niece through marriage. His marriage to her was not questioned and denounced because it was a second marriage, it was denounced because it was illegal according to Jewish law to marry your brother’s wife, especially if she was still married to your brother.
- MM
The reason why a man who divorced his wife could not take her back again was because she was "defiled". Why was she defiled? Because she slept with another man! Therefore...the sexual act is sinful as well....not just the initial divorce.
Yes, the disobedient actions like dishonesty, selfishness, immoral sex etc. are all part of the sins that led to the final sin, divorce.
- MM
Or you can consider that Deut 24:1-4 has more to do about dissolving a marraige in its betrothal stage, and not in its consummated stage. If a woman gets betrothed after lying with a different man, then is divorced out of the marriage to the betrothed when discovered (perhaps due to childbirth) to be married to the man who seduced her, and he shall not put her away all the days of his life.
Please read Exodus 22:16. Fornication is when a woman marries a man who didn't take her virginity. Thank you!
That's a pretty good verse proving that a person doesn't marry a spouse by taking their virginity.