gamma reflection via double and contour integration.

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  • Опубліковано 13 сер 2023
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КОМЕНТАРІ • 54

  • @user-jc2lz6jb2e
    @user-jc2lz6jb2e 11 місяців тому +15

    If the gamma function didn't have that pesky -1, the reflection formula would look like this: Γ(z)Γ(-z) = πz/sin(πz)
    You can easily see there is a reflection with the minus sign, and also the RHS looks like the reciprocal of sin(x)/x, an important function used in calculus to find trig derivatives.

    • @fartoxedm5638
      @fartoxedm5638 11 місяців тому +2

      Actually, It would be -pi / (z * sin(pi * z)). The thing you are reffering to is Г(z + 1) * Г(1 - z)

    • @user-jc2lz6jb2e
      @user-jc2lz6jb2e 11 місяців тому +3

      @@fartoxedm5638 Γ(z) = (z-1)! with the usual definition (for positive integers, but let's extend it)
      The reflection formula is Γ(z)Γ(1-z) = π/sin(πz)
      Replace gammas with factorial: (z-1)!(-z)! = π/sin(πz)
      Multiply with z: (z)!(-z)! = πz/sin(πz)
      Change notation to make gamma match with factorial: Γ(z)Γ(-z) = πz/sin(πz)

    • @fartoxedm5638
      @fartoxedm5638 11 місяців тому

      @@user-jc2lz6jb2e You have literally wrote the mapping from factorial world to the gamma world in your first line. You can't simply go with "Nah, let's take Г(x) = x!" In the end

    • @user-jc2lz6jb2e
      @user-jc2lz6jb2e 11 місяців тому

      @@fartoxedm5638 that's the point I'm trying to make when I said "if gamma didn't the -1"
      Please read

    • @fartoxedm5638
      @fartoxedm5638 11 місяців тому

      @@user-jc2lz6jb2e ah, got it. Sorry for misunderstanding

  • @The1RandomFool
    @The1RandomFool 11 місяців тому +9

    I used contour integration to derive this identity as well, but started with this representation of the beta function, the integral of t^(a-1)/(1+t)^(a+b) from 0 to infinity for t.

  • @Xeroxias
    @Xeroxias 11 місяців тому +8

    It seems like we're doing something shady with the contour integral. In particular, the replacement u -> exp(i2pi) u is baffling, since there should be no change. I figure Michael is leaving out some t -> 0+ from some of these definitions and for C3 the replacement is actually u -> exp(i2pi - i2t) or something of that nature.

  • @user-gs6lp9ko1c
    @user-gs6lp9ko1c 11 місяців тому +3

    This is great! I took a complex analysis class 41 years ago, but I was always weak on contour integration and applying the concept to real integrals (I was weak, or the course was weak). Inspired me to look at your complex analysis videos on MathMajor, and I'll probably go through those. Thank you for doing all of this!
    BTW, if you make or already have a video series on multi-variable calculus, I'll be reviewing that as well!

  • @Mystery_Biscuits
    @Mystery_Biscuits 11 місяців тому +4

    I think, with a couple of appropriate hints, this derivation would make a very nice final exam question for a complex analysis class

  • @rcwlson1
    @rcwlson1 7 місяців тому

    That was gorgeous. props

  • @DeanCalhoun
    @DeanCalhoun 10 місяців тому

    Complex analysis is by far my favorite field of mathematics. So elegant and powerful!

  • @pacolibre5411
    @pacolibre5411 11 місяців тому +1

    I would be very interested in a discussion of convergence on this integral.
    Normally, it’s not something I care about, but because the integral defining the gamma function is only defined for z>0, meaning this integral should diverge for z outside (0,1), meaning you actually sneakily did some analytic continuation here.

  • @allanjmcpherson
    @allanjmcpherson 10 місяців тому

    This really makes me want to learn complex analysis! I just need to find the energy and make the time.

  • @jkid1134
    @jkid1134 11 місяців тому

    This is an excellent video, a ton of dirty details without getting bogged down in the algebra.

  • @aweebthatlovesmath4220
    @aweebthatlovesmath4220 11 місяців тому

    Eulers reflection formula is one of my favourite identities in math! Thank you for the video.

  • @bjornfeuerbacher5514
    @bjornfeuerbacher5514 11 місяців тому +3

    12:00 We have to restrict the value of z much earlier: The integral definitions of the Gamma function which Michael uses right from the start are only valid for Re(z) > 0 and Re(z) < 1, respectively.
    15:00 Here it's not regardless of what z is, this only works for Re(z) > -1.

    • @brendanmiralles3415
      @brendanmiralles3415 11 місяців тому

      I'm fairly certain the integral is well defined for all Re(z) > 0 why wouldn't it be for re(z)>1?

    • @brendanmiralles3415
      @brendanmiralles3415 11 місяців тому

      nvm I get what you're saying because of the z and the 1-z ignore me I'm an idiot 😂

    • @bjornfeuerbacher5514
      @bjornfeuerbacher5514 11 місяців тому

      @@brendanmiralles3415 No problem. I think it was my fault, I didn't explain very well what I meant.

  • @MichaelMaths_
    @MichaelMaths_ 11 місяців тому +1

    Very interesting, I often see this done using Euler or Weierstrass product

  • @goodplacetostop2973
    @goodplacetostop2973 11 місяців тому +8

    20:02

  • @gp-ht7ug
    @gp-ht7ug 11 місяців тому

    Excellent video

  • @imTyp0_
    @imTyp0_ Місяць тому

    Been wanting to see this for a while! Got stuck midway and didn’t know how to proceed

  • @khoozu7802
    @khoozu7802 9 місяців тому +1

    14.32
    He forgot to put "i" in front of the integral but that is not a problem because the integral goes to zero

  • @edcoad4930
    @edcoad4930 11 місяців тому

    Glorious!

  • @minwithoutintroduction
    @minwithoutintroduction 11 місяців тому

    رائع جدا كالعادة

  • @inigovera-fajardousategui3246
    @inigovera-fajardousategui3246 11 місяців тому

    Nice one

  • @Noam_.Menashe
    @Noam_.Menashe 11 місяців тому +4

    I can already guess that the integral is 1/(1+x^n) or its counterparts.
    Edit: after integration by parts it's a simple substitution for my integral.

  • @Mr_Mundee
    @Mr_Mundee 5 місяців тому

    you don't need to use a contour integral, just use the beta function

  • @billycheung5114
    @billycheung5114 9 місяців тому

    This crazy

  • @arandomcube3540
    @arandomcube3540 11 місяців тому +1

    Interesting, because this approaches 1/z as pi approaches 0.

  • @vadimpavlov6037
    @vadimpavlov6037 6 місяців тому

    Had a heart stroke at 6:56

  • @vascomanteigas9433
    @vascomanteigas9433 11 місяців тому

    I make a Proof of this identity using contour integral on my notes. Later I made a Proof of the Riemann and Hurwitz Zeta Functional equation using complex contour integral (which have an infinite number of poles...)

  • @ecoidea100
    @ecoidea100 11 місяців тому

    Elegant

  • @gniedu
    @gniedu 11 місяців тому +4

    This proof assumes Re(z+1)

    • @oliverherskovits7927
      @oliverherskovits7927 11 місяців тому +1

      We have that f(z) := Γ(z)Γ(1-z)sin(πz) satisfies f(z) = π on Re(z+1)

    • @davidblauyoutube
      @davidblauyoutube 11 місяців тому +7

      The restriction is necessary to evaluate the product Γ(z)Γ(1-z), because the integral representations of both Γ(z) and Γ(1-z) need to simultaneously converge and this only happens in the "critical strip" 0 < Re(z) < 1. Once this expression is evaluated, it turns out to simplify to π/sin(πz), giving us a valid /equation/ that holds in the critical strip.
      But once the equation is proved, it may be re-interpreted as a /formula/ for computing values of Γ in places where the integral representation does not converge (i.e. thereby "getting rid of the restriction"). In fact, treating the equation as a formula is the /unique/ way to extend Γ to the rest of the complex plane while maintaining its nature as an analytic function.

    • @gniedu
      @gniedu 11 місяців тому

      Thanks!

  • @Khashayarissi-ob4yj
    @Khashayarissi-ob4yj 11 місяців тому

    Hi. Please make videos on another math's ares's like abstract algebra, differencial geometry, algebric geometry and etc....
    With regards

  • @odysseus9672
    @odysseus9672 11 місяців тому +2

    How do you show that this formula is valid for Re(1+z) > 2?

  • @GreenMeansGOF
    @GreenMeansGOF 11 місяців тому

    We had to assume that the real part of z is less than 1?

  • @juandiegoparales9379
    @juandiegoparales9379 5 місяців тому

    I'm glad it wasn't my method 😅.

  • @nightmareintegral5593
    @nightmareintegral5593 11 місяців тому +1

    What about Jackson integral?

  • @Alan-zf2tt
    @Alan-zf2tt 11 місяців тому

    As for moi - whenever the presentation goes off at an extreme tangent covering some gross new things they seem to be eminently forgettable. But I reserve the right to be wrong on this :-)
    Basis of my conjecture: math is not frightening, math is eminently doable. Nonetheless - great video, great swooping intro to some gigantic new things (I feel like calling them monsters and that is okay)

  • @Happy_Abe
    @Happy_Abe 11 місяців тому

    @16:23 how is this not dividing by 0?
    e^(2pi*iz)=1^z=1 so 1-e^(2pi*iz)=0 and we are dividing by 0

  • @Juratbek0717
    @Juratbek0717 11 місяців тому

    hi teacher how can i contact you

  • @looney1023
    @looney1023 11 місяців тому

    But we've only proven this for the case of Re(z+1) < 2?

    • @oliverherskovits7927
      @oliverherskovits7927 11 місяців тому

      Use the identity principle from complex analysis to extend the Identity to all of C (minus multiples of π)

    • @bjornfeuerbacher5514
      @bjornfeuerbacher5514 11 місяців тому

      And Re(z+1) > 0, otherwise the integral with the epsilon wouldn't vanish.

  • @charleyhoward4594
    @charleyhoward4594 11 місяців тому

    ????????????