Edward, thank you for your compliment. More resources-such as longer podcasts, recommended readings, etc.-for each topic can be found at Aquinas101.com.
@@ThomisticInstitute Thank you very much, I will take all you have to offer. Your videos here have already inspired me to put more of such ways of thought into my own writings.
Thank you always ,what eloquent , teachers you are! You are sure chosen to spread the Faith, which how well Jesus can use you all demonstrate such love ,wisdom n devotion,n ability.G B U.
A great video,thanks Fr.clarifying so well Jesus Human n Divine state alon with the full outpouring of the Holy Spirit,to enable Him to go through his suffering n Death for us.v
I am new to Thomistic theology. I have always wondered what was happening to Jesus during the agony of the garden. What did he know that caused such intense emotional conflict? The crashing together of all three Knowledges? So many people dithering with the fires of hell, the abject disdain from Pharisees and Sadducees he dealt with so often, his own upcoming physical pain? How harsh the betrayal he was to endure, the complacency of drowsy apostles? He literally sweat blood. Note: not grasping the import of the word subsisting.
Thanks, Father, for this video. However, this video raises many questions. We Orthodox have a completely different view of the procession of the Holy Spirit! Thanks again!
For your information and research and the sake of discussion, I'll give an extract from St. Thomas Aquinas found in Chapter XXXVI, Article 2 ('I answer that' section): We derive a knowledge of the same truth from the very order of nature itself. For we nowhere find that several things proceed from one without order except in those which differ only by their matter; as for instance one smith produces many knives distinct from each other materially, with no order to each other; whereas in things in which there is not only a material distinction we always find that some order exists in the multitude produced. Hence also in the order of creatures produced, the beauty of the divine wisdom is displayed. So if from the one Person of the Father, two persons proceed, the Son and the Holy Ghost*, there must be some order between them. Nor can any other be assigned except the order of their nature, whereby one is from the other. Therefore it cannot be said that the Son and the Holy Ghost proceed from the Father in such a way as that neither of them proceeds from the other, unless we admit in them a material distinction; which is impossible. Hence also the Greeks themselves recognize that the procession of the Holy Ghost has some order to the Son. For they grant that the Holy Ghost is the Spirit of the Son; and that He is from the Father through the Son. Some of them are said also to concede that He is from the Son; or that He flows from the Son, but not that He proceeds; which seems to come from ignorance or obstinacy. For a just consideration of the truth will convince anyone that the word procession is the one most commonly applied to all that denotes origin of any kind. For we use the term to describe any kind of origin; as when we say that a line proceeds from a point, a ray from the sun, a stream from a source, and likewise in everything else. Hence, granted that the Holy Ghost originates in any way from the Son [as both are from the Father]*, we can conclude that the Holy Ghost proceeds from the Son. P.S. Information in the square brackets and the square brackets themselves as well as asterisk added by me for easier reading.
Thanks for your engagement with the Catholic teaching. If you want to read St. Thomas's arguments for the procession of the Spirit from the Father and the Son in greater depth, you can find it here: aquinas101.thomisticinstitute.org/st-ia-q-36#FPQ36A2THEP1
I didn't understand the distinction between infused knowledge per se and infused knowledge per accidens, and I don't know what kind of infused knowledge Christ had.
Question: How does Christ having a distinct human intellect from the one, undivided Divine intellect that He shares with the Father not violate Divine Simplicity?
I think it goes back to the Mystery of the Hypostatic Union. Remember that Christ has two nature: Divine and Human. The Divine Nature is Simple and Immutable/Unchanging, while the Human Nature is Complex/Composed and Mutable/Changing. So the Divine Intellect of Christ which He shares by common Nature with the Father is still absolutely simple, as being united with all the other powers and attributes of God as Classical Theism claims. Jesus' human intellect, however, on virtue of His human nature, is distinct from His human will, His senses, His appetite, etc. which compose His human nature. It is hard to understand, especially without grace, but that is why it is a mystery.
This issue is covered in another video, "Jesus Christ, True God and True Man." ua-cam.com/video/xphsJLRF9v8/v-deo.html The divine Son joins a human nature to himself in person, so that one person now has two natures. The divine nature remains unchanged and absolutely simple, but the person of the Son now has another nature with another (human) intellect. Often this kind of question has a background presupposition about what it means to be a person: a person is a unique consciousness. On that view, having two "consciousnesses" would seem to involve a change. But the classical Christian tradition does not equate a person with consciousness, so it is possible for one person (the Son) to have two distinct minds or consciousnesses -- and likewise, for three persons (Father, Son, and Holy Spirit) to have one divine intellect.
Hello, thank you for the video I really appreciate it. However, I do have one question for you in regards to scripture that I've been struggling to make sense of ( in terms of Christ's knowledge). Specifically Mathew 13: 32-36 When it comes to the 3 categories of what Christ knew, how would that affect this Bible verse? Because I'm trying to make sense of the fact that even though the father and the son share one mind, the son would not know that as well. I'm okay with not getting an answer. I'm just trying to understand my faith better.
Since we are here.. what is the theological issue with our Orthodox brothers who reject the Filioque and so the fact that the Spirit proceeds from the Son as well? Thanks!
For your information and research and the sake of discussion, I'll give an extract from St. Thomas Aquinas found in Chapter XXXVI, Article 2 ('I answer that' section): We derive a knowledge of the same truth from the very order of nature itself. For we nowhere find that several things proceed from one without order except in those which differ only by their matter; as for instance one smith produces many knives distinct from each other materially, with no order to each other; whereas in things in which there is not only a material distinction we always find that some order exists in the multitude produced. Hence also in the order of creatures produced, the beauty of the divine wisdom is displayed. So if from the one Person of the Father, two persons proceed, the Son and the Holy Ghost, there must be some order between them. Nor can any other be assigned except the order of their nature, whereby one is from the other. Therefore it cannot be said that the Son and the Holy Ghost proceed from the Father in such a way as that neither of them proceeds from the other, unless we admit in them a material distinction; which is impossible. Hence also the Greeks themselves recognize that the procession of the Holy Ghost has some order to the Son. For they grant that the Holy Ghost is the Spirit of the Son; and that He is from the Father through the Son. Some of them are said also to concede that He is from the Son; or that He flows from the Son, but not that He proceeds; which seems to come from ignorance or obstinacy. For a just consideration of the truth will convince anyone that the word procession is the one most commonly applied to all that denotes origin of any kind. For we use the term to describe any kind of origin; as when we say that a line proceeds from a point, a ray from the sun, a stream from a source, and likewise in everything else. Hence, granted that the Holy Ghost originates in any way from the Son [as both are from the Father]*, we can conclude that the Holy Ghost proceeds from the Son. *Square brackets added by me for easier reading.
It is true that there are historical difficulties over the inclusion of the term "filioque" in the Creed, but St. Thomas follows the earlier tradition of St. Augustine in arguing that, if the Spirit does not proceed from the Father and the Son, then there is no way to distinguish the Spirit and the Son. Both proceed from the Father; the Spirit proceeds from the Father and the Son.
Christ is the very source of faith itself by virtue of Him transcendently living in the obscurity of faith. He is the source of faith by perfectly embodying it as one who never wavered despite the odds He was up against. In His incarnation, He experiences the mystery and unknowability of all life along with us. If He had a human mind, then that means He had a finite mind. Therefore, within His finite mind, He had limited perception. But within His divine mind, which was always there hidden within His human mind, He had infinite perception. Both experiences are happening simultaneously within His one subsisting person, defining for us what faith actually looks like.
This is my understanding of what was said. Jesus is a divine person manifesting Himself through His humanity of mind, body and soul. In fine, he is God becoming human in order to communicate His message to us. The message being that it is only the way of the Cross that is the means to our salvation. Jesus is our teacher and example. Any comment?
Thanks for your reading. Yes, that's right, Jesus used human nature to teach. But also, his teaching was only one aspect of how he transformed human nature. In Christ, God perfected human nature, becoming a new Adam, and therefore a new mystical source of life, just as the old Adam was a source of death, for all people. The grace of his humanity overflows to us, as something flowing from the head into the members of the body.
@@ThomisticInstitute Need further explanation on how Christ's grace overflows to us. Does it require an act of our will to accept His grace or does His grace activate or merely motivate our will? My guess is that His grace does both but will not save us without our agreement to follow His will.
@@michaeldowd2614 how does grace relate to nature but through the union of natures in Christ which is itself a grace. He assumed all of humanity into his person in the incarnation. Just as all fell in Adam all are united to God in the incarnation by grace
@@neuronneuron3645 Then if all are united to God in the incarnation by grace does that mean we are all saved? And if that is the case what is the point of Baptism and being a Catholic?
Father, I am stuck. . . Christ exsisted from the beginning and is responsible for creation at that time and ongoing. He must have not had a human nature at that time as he had not been incarnate of Mary yet. Once he became incarnate Jesus had a human and divine nature. However Jesus is one with the Father . God can not change, but Jesus developed a human nature when he originally didn’t? This is not internally consistent. Can you help me to understand?
Christ assumed a human nature, which means He took on a human nature, which did not affect His divinity. So His divine nature does not change in anyway but now because of the Incarnation, He also is human. Does this help?
Thanks for your question! Jesus, God the Son, took a human nature, but this was not a development of his divine nature. His coming into existence applies to the human nature that he took. The divine nature, on the other hand, does not change.
So, Christ knowledge is omniscient? If so He knew everything everytime, even as a Baby? Also, do something changes in Christ human nature after the resurrection? In one passage he ask His father to give him again the Glory he has from the beginning... Love love this videos.
@@ThomisticInstitute That means, he believed in the salvation by faith only, without works and any "sacraments"? The latter is something, which even M. Luther had struggle with ("hoc est corpus meus", discussion with Zwingli). Had Aquinas no problem with his church having read the bible cover to cover multiple times? Cannot believe it. Even I have a masive problem with my church after an intense bible study, and i am not even a Catholic...
@@ZondyYT Seeing as how "salvation by faith only, without works and any 'sacraments'" is a heretical doctrine, St. Thomas Aquinas did not hold to it while undergoing theosis here on earth, nor does he hold to it while enjoying the Beatific Vision currently in Heaven.
Glory To The Triune GOD
Thank you Aquinas 101, may our Lord Jesus Christ bless you!
All of us Cathloics should hear this at confirmation. This is wonderful and essential to understanding
Thank you Fr Dominic!
This is absolutely amazing and fantastic. I have learned so much from you. Thank you for saying 'Yes' to Lord Jesus.
Thank you for being a source of calm and sanity during this time of pandemic.
You're welcome! It's a privilege to communicate the peace of Christ through the knowledge of His salvation.
I totally agree with your comment .
These are so good as they are succinct, but I therefore want them to be longer.
Edward, thank you for your compliment. More resources-such as longer podcasts, recommended readings, etc.-for each topic can be found at Aquinas101.com.
@@ThomisticInstitute Thank you very much, I will take all you have to offer. Your videos here have already inspired me to put more of such ways of thought into my own writings.
It’s as simple as this: you can’t separate the Anointed One from Who He is anointed in (that being the Holy Spirit).
Thank you always ,what eloquent , teachers you are! You are sure chosen to spread the Faith, which how well Jesus can use you all demonstrate such love ,wisdom n devotion,n ability.G B U.
A great video,thanks Fr.clarifying so well Jesus Human n Divine state alon with the full outpouring of the Holy Spirit,to enable Him to go through his suffering n Death for us.v
Amen
All true and correct - finally someone explains Hypostatic Union and the Incarnation correctly! 🙏
Thanks for your kind words, and for taking the time to watch and comment! May the Lord bless you.
Super awesome!! We'll done.
a lot to take in, thank you
I am new to Thomistic theology. I have always wondered what was happening to Jesus during the agony of the garden. What did he know that caused such intense emotional conflict? The crashing together of all three Knowledges? So many people dithering with the fires of hell, the abject disdain from Pharisees and Sadducees he dealt with so often, his own upcoming physical pain? How harsh the betrayal he was to endure, the complacency of drowsy apostles? He literally sweat blood.
Note: not grasping the import of the word subsisting.
Outstanding Father. Thanks so much
Frank
You're welcome, Frank!
Terimakasih Pastor atss informasi yang di sampaikan, Tuhan memberkati selalu Amen. 🙏✝️
Amazing.
Thanks, Father, for this video. However, this video raises many questions. We Orthodox have a completely different view of the procession of the Holy Spirit! Thanks again!
For your information and research and the sake of discussion, I'll give an extract from St. Thomas Aquinas found in Chapter XXXVI, Article 2 ('I answer that' section):
We derive a knowledge of the same truth from the very order of nature itself. For we nowhere find that several things proceed from one without order except in those which differ only by their matter; as for instance one smith produces many knives distinct from each other materially, with no order to each other; whereas in things in which there is not only a material distinction we always find that some order exists in the multitude produced. Hence also in the order of creatures produced, the beauty of the divine wisdom is displayed. So if from the one Person of the Father, two persons proceed, the Son and the Holy Ghost*, there must be some order between them. Nor can any other be assigned except the order of their nature, whereby one is from the other. Therefore it cannot be said that the Son and the Holy Ghost proceed from the Father in such a way as that neither of them proceeds from the other, unless we admit in them a material distinction; which is impossible.
Hence also the Greeks themselves recognize that the procession of the Holy Ghost has some order to the Son. For they grant that the Holy Ghost is the Spirit of the Son; and that He is from the Father through the Son. Some of them are said also to concede that He is from the Son; or that He flows from the Son, but not that He proceeds; which seems to come from ignorance or obstinacy. For a just consideration of the truth will convince anyone that the word procession is the one most commonly applied to all that denotes origin of any kind. For we use the term to describe any kind of origin; as when we say that a line proceeds from a point, a ray from the sun, a stream from a source, and likewise in everything else. Hence, granted that the Holy Ghost originates in any way from the Son [as both are from the Father]*, we can conclude that the Holy Ghost proceeds from the Son.
P.S. Information in the square brackets and the square brackets themselves as well as asterisk added by me for easier reading.
Thanks for your engagement with the Catholic teaching. If you want to read St. Thomas's arguments for the procession of the Spirit from the Father and the Son in greater depth, you can find it here: aquinas101.thomisticinstitute.org/st-ia-q-36#FPQ36A2THEP1
Very enlightening,n informative,thank you.
all of us are like the sun, but christ is like the point at the center.
wow
For the fullfiling the traditional form of Christ statement teaching, I advice reading one of Abp Athanasius Schneider articles about this.
So when Jesus was a man on earth, could he answer any possible question with complete accuracy?
I didn't understand the distinction between infused knowledge per se and infused knowledge per accidens, and I don't know what kind of infused knowledge Christ had.
Question: How does Christ having a distinct human intellect from the one, undivided Divine intellect that He shares with the Father not violate Divine Simplicity?
I think it goes back to the Mystery of the Hypostatic Union. Remember that Christ has two nature: Divine and Human. The Divine Nature is Simple and Immutable/Unchanging, while the Human Nature is Complex/Composed and Mutable/Changing. So the Divine Intellect of Christ which He shares by common Nature with the Father is still absolutely simple, as being united with all the other powers and attributes of God as Classical Theism claims. Jesus' human intellect, however, on virtue of His human nature, is distinct from His human will, His senses, His appetite, etc. which compose His human nature. It is hard to understand, especially without grace, but that is why it is a mystery.
This issue is covered in another video, "Jesus Christ, True God and True Man." ua-cam.com/video/xphsJLRF9v8/v-deo.html
The divine Son joins a human nature to himself in person, so that one person now has two natures. The divine nature remains unchanged and absolutely simple, but the person of the Son now has another nature with another (human) intellect.
Often this kind of question has a background presupposition about what it means to be a person: a person is a unique consciousness. On that view, having two "consciousnesses" would seem to involve a change. But the classical Christian tradition does not equate a person with consciousness, so it is possible for one person (the Son) to have two distinct minds or consciousnesses -- and likewise, for three persons (Father, Son, and Holy Spirit) to have one divine intellect.
A lovely video thanks,so interesting re: Jesus as God n man ,his Divine knowledge Human acquired through experience.G B U.
Hello, thank you for the video I really appreciate it. However, I do have one question for you in regards to scripture that I've been struggling to make sense of ( in terms of Christ's knowledge).
Specifically Mathew 13: 32-36
When it comes to the 3 categories of what Christ knew, how would that affect this Bible verse? Because I'm trying to make sense of the fact that even though the father and the son share one mind, the son would not know that as well.
I'm okay with not getting an answer. I'm just trying to understand my faith better.
Is this a good explanation for verses like Mark 13:32?
Since we are here.. what is the theological issue with our Orthodox brothers who reject the Filioque and so the fact that the Spirit proceeds from the Son as well? Thanks!
Primarily over authority, but I would argue that the Catholic position is also more scriptural.
For your information and research and the sake of discussion, I'll give an extract from St. Thomas Aquinas found in Chapter XXXVI, Article 2 ('I answer that' section):
We derive a knowledge of the same truth from the very order of nature itself. For we nowhere find that several things proceed from one without order except in those which differ only by their matter; as for instance one smith produces many knives distinct from each other materially, with no order to each other; whereas in things in which there is not only a material distinction we always find that some order exists in the multitude produced. Hence also in the order of creatures produced, the beauty of the divine wisdom is displayed. So if from the one Person of the Father, two persons proceed, the Son and the Holy Ghost, there must be some order between them. Nor can any other be assigned except the order of their nature, whereby one is from the other. Therefore it cannot be said that the Son and the Holy Ghost proceed from the Father in such a way as that neither of them proceeds from the other, unless we admit in them a material distinction; which is impossible.
Hence also the Greeks themselves recognize that the procession of the Holy Ghost has some order to the Son. For they grant that the Holy Ghost is the Spirit of the Son; and that He is from the Father through the Son. Some of them are said also to concede that He is from the Son; or that He flows from the Son, but not that He proceeds; which seems to come from ignorance or obstinacy. For a just consideration of the truth will convince anyone that the word procession is the one most commonly applied to all that denotes origin of any kind. For we use the term to describe any kind of origin; as when we say that a line proceeds from a point, a ray from the sun, a stream from a source, and likewise in everything else. Hence, granted that the Holy Ghost originates in any way from the Son [as both are from the Father]*, we can conclude that the Holy Ghost proceeds from the Son.
*Square brackets added by me for easier reading.
It is true that there are historical difficulties over the inclusion of the term "filioque" in the Creed, but St. Thomas follows the earlier tradition of St. Augustine in arguing that, if the Spirit does not proceed from the Father and the Son, then there is no way to distinguish the Spirit and the Son. Both proceed from the Father; the Spirit proceeds from the Father and the Son.
Christ is the very source of faith itself by virtue of Him transcendently living in the obscurity of faith. He is the source of faith by perfectly embodying it as one who never wavered despite the odds He was up against. In His incarnation, He experiences the mystery and unknowability of all life along with us. If He had a human mind, then that means He had a finite mind. Therefore, within His finite mind, He had limited perception. But within His divine mind, which was always there hidden within His human mind, He had infinite perception. Both experiences are happening simultaneously within His one subsisting person, defining for us what faith actually looks like.
This is my understanding of what was said. Jesus is a divine person manifesting Himself through His humanity of mind, body and soul. In fine, he is God becoming human in order to communicate His message to us. The message being that it is only the way of the Cross that is the means to our salvation. Jesus is our teacher and example. Any comment?
Thanks for your reading. Yes, that's right, Jesus used human nature to teach. But also, his teaching was only one aspect of how he transformed human nature. In Christ, God perfected human nature, becoming a new Adam, and therefore a new mystical source of life, just as the old Adam was a source of death, for all people. The grace of his humanity overflows to us, as something flowing from the head into the members of the body.
@@ThomisticInstitute Need further explanation on how Christ's grace overflows to us. Does it require an act of our will to accept His grace or does His grace activate or merely motivate our will? My guess is that His grace does both but will not save us without our agreement to follow His will.
@@michaeldowd2614 how does grace relate to nature but through the union of natures in Christ which is itself a grace. He assumed all of humanity into his person in the incarnation. Just as all fell in Adam all are united to God in the incarnation by grace
@@neuronneuron3645 Then if all are united to God in the incarnation by grace does that mean we are all saved? And if that is the case what is the point of Baptism and being a Catholic?
Father, I am stuck. . .
Christ exsisted from the beginning and is responsible for creation at that time and ongoing. He must have not had a human nature at that time as he had not been incarnate of Mary yet. Once he became incarnate Jesus had a human and divine nature. However Jesus is one with the Father . God can not change, but Jesus developed a human nature when he originally didn’t? This is not internally consistent. Can you help me to understand?
Christ assumed a human nature, which means He took on a human nature, which did not affect His divinity. So His divine nature does not change in anyway but now because of the Incarnation, He also is human. Does this help?
Thanks for your question! Jesus, God the Son, took a human nature, but this was not a development of his divine nature. His coming into existence applies to the human nature that he took. The divine nature, on the other hand, does not change.
So, Christ knowledge is omniscient? If so He knew everything everytime, even as a Baby?
Also, do something changes in Christ human nature after the resurrection? In one passage he ask His father to give him again the Glory he has from the beginning...
Love love this videos.
Was T. Aqinas saved?
Yes.
@@ThomisticInstitute
That means, he believed in the salvation by faith only, without works and any "sacraments"?
The latter is something, which even M. Luther had struggle with ("hoc est corpus meus", discussion with Zwingli).
Had Aquinas no problem with his church having read the bible cover to cover multiple times? Cannot believe it. Even I have a masive problem with my church after an intense bible study, and i am not even a Catholic...
@@ZondyYT Seeing as how "salvation by faith only, without works and any 'sacraments'" is a heretical doctrine, St. Thomas Aquinas did not hold to it while undergoing theosis here on earth, nor does he hold to it while enjoying the Beatific Vision currently in Heaven.
More I listen to you less everything makes any sense.
This is so much bullshit! Jesus Christ is not The Most High God.
Jesus Christ created the everything in this world with his father you heretic