D'Alembert Solution to the Wave Equation

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  • Опубліковано 26 лис 2024

КОМЕНТАРІ • 54

  • @Lalalacici
    @Lalalacici 4 роки тому +23

    This was so well explained! I hope you get more attention from the UA-cam Science Community.

  • @GuillermoGarcia75
    @GuillermoGarcia75 4 роки тому +5

    Thank You VERY VERY much... no explanation as clear as yours... you deserve so much more credit. .... GREAT series on PDEs.

  • @shaydiesin4800
    @shaydiesin4800 4 роки тому +3

    not the hero we deserve but the hero we need

  • @shynggyskassen942
    @shynggyskassen942 3 роки тому +1

    Best video series for PDE

  • @asad78687
    @asad78687 2 роки тому

    Brilliantly explained!!

  • @majormaki1495
    @majormaki1495 7 років тому +8

    Hi, I was wondering if you could do a video about transforming harder parabolic PDEs into easier ones?

    • @FacultyofKhan
      @FacultyofKhan  7 років тому +1

      Perhaps. I'll add it to my to-do list and get to it when I get the chance. Just for my reference, do you have any example problems you would like help with?

    • @majormaki1495
      @majormaki1495 7 років тому +1

      Faculty of Khan A problem like one shown here: www.physicsforums.com/threads/pde-transforming-hard-equations-into-easier-ones.674252/

    • @the_growth_mindset.
      @the_growth_mindset. 5 років тому +1

      For the question in the link for anyone interested :
      Partially differentiate the given substitution with respect to t (i,e hold all other variables constant) using the product rule. Partially differentiate the given substitution with respect to x twice. Then just simply sub into the original PDE. Simplify and solved.

  • @HidrogenoyMau
    @HidrogenoyMau 7 років тому +3

    I am very grateful you're doing this, your material has really REALLY helped me a lot, seeing this increase in uploads is just incredible, if you ever accept donations I'd be more than glad to buy you a beer.

  • @ArghyaDas180
    @ArghyaDas180 Рік тому

    thank you so much for such a great explanation , all doubts are cleared sir. ☺☺☺☺

  • @roselinpanda3659
    @roselinpanda3659 2 роки тому +1

    why is the dummy variable introduced? Can't equation 3 be integrated with dx?

  • @raymondzhao9557
    @raymondzhao9557 7 років тому +3

    Thank you for this amazing video

  • @casualBob7
    @casualBob7 4 роки тому

    amazing. saving my EE degree

  • @jameswilson8270
    @jameswilson8270 6 років тому +6

    Thanks for the videos. I wish I could afford to donate.

  • @raymondzhao9557
    @raymondzhao9557 7 років тому +3

    Hi, do you still upgrade PDE class?
    There are no Laplaces problem

    • @FacultyofKhan
      @FacultyofKhan  7 років тому +2

      I will eventually; thanks for asking!

  • @manstuckinabox3679
    @manstuckinabox3679 Рік тому

    D'alambert solution could also be achieved using Seperation of variables.

  • @enginbolat6123
    @enginbolat6123 10 місяців тому

    Find the distribution 𝑢(𝑥, 𝑡) by writing the wave equation and boundary conditions for a rod (one dimension) of length L=1 unit, with both ends fixed and whose initial displacement is given by 𝑓(𝑥), whose initial velocity is equal to zero. (𝑐2 = 1, 𝑘= 0.01)
    𝑓(𝑥) =ksin(3𝜋x)
    Can you solve this question? I couldn't solve it. Can you help me?

  • @ASHISHKUMAR-ro6hb
    @ASHISHKUMAR-ro6hb 4 роки тому

    it was really helpful , keep it up sir

  • @AaronChung97
    @AaronChung97 5 років тому +4

    I am still very confused by the dummy integration variable and how that allows us to integrate from x0 to x, and for f' to be integrated directly into f(x)-f(x0) since it is a derivative of x+ct, not x

    • @guilhermefranco2949
      @guilhermefranco2949 2 роки тому +1

      Notice u(x, 0) sets t equal to zero, hence f'(x - ct) at t = 0 turns into f'(x), therefore integrating from x0 to x, gives you f(x) - f(x0) via FTC.

    • @chrisdanikas7918
      @chrisdanikas7918 2 роки тому +1

      @@guilhermefranco2949 so when you set t=0 means that the derivative with respect to x + ct becomes a derivative with respect to x ?

    • @guilhermefranco2949
      @guilhermefranco2949 2 роки тому +2

      @@chrisdanikas7918 Well yes but actually no

    • @aamid_riyaz
      @aamid_riyaz Рік тому

      @@chrisdanikas7918 Think about it as
      ψ(x, t) = G(η) + F(ξ)
      where η: (x, t) ⟶ (x - vt) and ξ: (x, t) ⟶ (x + vt)
      Now ∂ψ/∂t = ∂G(η)/ ∂t + ∂F(ξ)/∂t = (∂G/∂η)(∂η/∂t) + (∂F/∂ξ)(∂ξ/∂t) by chain rule
      But ∂η/∂t ≔ -v and ∂ξ/∂t ≔ v
      Therefore ∂ψ/∂t = -v (∂G/∂η) + v (∂F/∂ξ)
      However we want ∂ψ/∂t(x,0)
      Now we take an approach that’s non-standard in nature:
      ∂ψ/∂t = -v (∂G/∂η) + v (∂F/∂ξ) = -v (∂G/∂(x-vt)) + v (∂F/∂(x+vt))
      ⇒ ∂ψ/∂t(x,0) = -v (∂G/∂(x)) + v (∂F/∂(x))
      Now we can obviously use the prime notation
      ∂ψ/∂t(x,0) = -v G’ + v F’

  • @apoorvpandey3D
    @apoorvpandey3D 4 роки тому +1

    7:32 in the end it doesnt even matter.

  • @pradyutmukherjee1110
    @pradyutmukherjee1110 9 місяців тому

    Will there be any problem if we use "dx" as integration instead of "ds"? As it is just a dummy variable!
    Anyone's help is much appreciated, Thank You!😄

  • @ankurrastogi3080
    @ankurrastogi3080 6 років тому +1

    Beautiful!!

  • @ozzyfromspace
    @ozzyfromspace 4 роки тому +1

    2:30 I find it interesting that you spell the word TRAVELLING as such, the British way

    • @FacultyofKhan
      @FacultyofKhan  4 роки тому

      Bleh, I read so many posts from different parts of the world online that sometimes I just end up using American and British spelling interchangeably.

  • @jayjayf9699
    @jayjayf9699 4 роки тому

    Hi I don't understand that isn't this solution incorrect as under the galiean transformation the wave equation become not invarient so doesn't this contradict special relativity?

    • @FacultyofKhan
      @FacultyofKhan  3 роки тому

      This video isn't meant to be consistent with special relativity...it's just the solution of a wave equation in the context of (non special relativity) mechanics.

  • @shashankhansraj8197
    @shashankhansraj8197 5 років тому

    Thank you very much

  • @rohitkumarsingh6250
    @rohitkumarsingh6250 5 років тому +2

    Thanks sir

  • @seanziewonzie
    @seanziewonzie 7 років тому +1

    Very elegant.

    • @FacultyofKhan
      @FacultyofKhan  7 років тому

      Glad you like it!

    • @seanziewonzie
      @seanziewonzie 7 років тому

      You ever think of doing some Lie Theory lectures?

    • @FacultyofKhan
      @FacultyofKhan  7 років тому +2

      I haven't thought of it directly, but I may plan to do differential geometry in the future so that's where it will come up.

    • @justin4364
      @justin4364 7 років тому +1

      Would love to see some differential geometry videos!

  • @صباجدیدی-م4و
    @صباجدیدی-م4و 3 роки тому

    Thanks alot.

  • @walti3202
    @walti3202 2 місяці тому

    w explanation

  • @cine1972
    @cine1972 4 роки тому

    8
    /
    L'éthique
    Newton et les Forces
    La Mécanique des Fluides de Dalambert.
    L'eau qui coule.

  • @zhongyuanchen8424
    @zhongyuanchen8424 6 років тому

    Holly. Can I say that in the end, we don't know what f(x+ct) and g(x-ct) are seperately. But, we know what they are when they are combined? We only know the solution u(x,t) through exploiting the definition of the definited integral?

    • @FacultyofKhan
      @FacultyofKhan  6 років тому +3

      I'm not entirely sure if I understand your question, but I will try to answer. When we start solving the PDE, we don't know what f(x+ct) and g(x-ct) are explicitly; we only find out once we solve the PDE and express them in terms of the boundary/initial conditions. So in the end, we actually do know what f and g are, and we also know what their combination u is; that's what I solved for in the video.
      Does that answer your question?

  • @wasimakram-zf2xb
    @wasimakram-zf2xb 6 років тому +1

    Thank u .........

  • @abdirahmandaud7436
    @abdirahmandaud7436 Рік тому +1

    me enjoying my 0.07 dollar ugali at kenyatta university and my lecturer on you tube is telling me to send 20 dollar

  • @il2xbox
    @il2xbox 7 років тому +1

    Hi, I was watching a video about coffee cup mechanics on Sixty Symbols' youtube channel and got interested in the math behind vibrations in the surface of the coffee, and it led me to this paper www.me.rochester.edu/courses/ME201/webexamp/coffee.pdf but unfortunately it doesn't go into a lot of detail about how they came up with the solution.
    Do you think you could do a video explaining that at some point? I'd really like to know what a full solution of the coffee vibration problem looks like. That would be awesome.
    In the meantime I think I'll go watch your videos about Bessel functions, and see if that helps me.
    Really enjoying your content!

    • @FacultyofKhan
      @FacultyofKhan  7 років тому +1

      From what I've read so far (i.e. over the last few minutes), it seems like the problem involves solving a Laplace equation by separation of variables (in cylindrical coordinates, with the solution ultimately involving Bessel functions). It seems 'simple', which means that I know/can easily learn it, just that the algebra is a little complicated. I can put it in my to-do list though (I plan to cover Laplace's equation once I fully do the wave equation anyway), and thank you for the kind words!

    • @il2xbox
      @il2xbox 7 років тому +1

      Thank you very much for the help!

  • @imacoder3160
    @imacoder3160 11 місяців тому

    🇰🇬🇰🇬🇰🇬👍👍👍