Sándor, your videos are my go-to method to learn Hungarian. I love your sense of humour man and you are extremely underrated I think Hungarian is one of if not the most beautiful language in the world. Also your English is incredibly good! Mit mond az udvarias terminátor Bocsánat, hogy félbeszakítom
Im here because Duolingo declines to prepare you for any of this until you get halfway through the course and then bombards you with entire sentences full of this stuff
Yes, the possessive endings and half of the verb endings can be traced back to (Pre-?)Proto-Uralic personal pronouns *mV, *tV, *sV (V = unknown vowel) sticking to the end of verbs.
You're right! That's possibly where the -ik words originated from. Somewhen in Proto-Hungarian, direct objects didn't recieve a -t suffix when they directly preceeded the verb. Something like this: Fa törik. "They break wood." Then the -t suffux became more regular in this position too, which led to speakers hear both the old "Fa törik" and the innovative "Fát törik". Speakers with obligatory -t before direct objects anywhere probably reanalised the t-less nouns as subjects instead of objects: Fát törik. "They break wood." Fát tör. "He breaks wood." Fa törik. "The wood (itself) breaks." Then the -ik and not the -ják got fixed for all verbs. (hallják "they hear it", but hallik "it sounds, it is audible"). It seemed for a moment that Hungarian would develop a new, medial conjugation. But semantic changes and too much syncretism (same forms for ik-ed and ikless verbs) killed this project of Hungarian to be even more complex. Only the ruins remain: -om and -ik for indef. on verbs of completely random meaning, -ol and -sz living on as a phonetic rule (originally only ik verbs recieved -ol), and an extremely few word pairs like tör-törik, hall-hallik (dialectal).
Why do Hungarians say nem tudom magyarul and nem beszélek magyarul? Why not nem tudok magyarul and nem beszélem magyarul? I don't get it what's the point?
"Nem tudom magyarul" in incorrect, it's actually "Nem tudok magyarul". In this case "Nem tudok" doesn't mean I don't know, it means "I can't". If you happen to know how to say "I can" in Hungarian, then it should make sense. "Nem beszélek magyarul" is correct. But again, "Nem beszélem magyarul" is incorrect, becase the verb is in the definite conjugation but we don't have a definite object here (nor an indefinite, for that matter". So it actually should be "Nem beszélek magyarul". But to summarize: "Nem tudok magyarul" literally means "I can't in Hungarian". It's one way of saying I don't speak Hungarian. And "Nem beszélek magyarulo" literally means "I don't speak in Hungarian". Thsi is how we say I don't speak Hungarian.
Sándor, your videos are my go-to method to learn Hungarian. I love your sense of humour man and you are extremely underrated
I think Hungarian is one of if not the most beautiful language in the world.
Also your English is incredibly good!
Mit mond az udvarias terminátor
Bocsánat, hogy félbeszakítom
ez a magyarázás kiválóan világos és hasznos
Im here because Duolingo declines to prepare you for any of this until you get halfway through the course and then bombards you with entire sentences full of this stuff
duolingo is really helpful and also really unhelpful at the same time lol
Thanks!
Thx
Also they seem similar to possessive endings? Köszönöm
Yes, the possessive endings and half of the verb endings can be traced back to (Pre-?)Proto-Uralic personal pronouns *mV, *tV, *sV (V = unknown vowel) sticking to the end of verbs.
So the 3rd person plural ends in ik like 3rd person singular in ik verbs?
You're right! That's possibly where the -ik words originated from.
Somewhen in Proto-Hungarian, direct objects didn't recieve a -t suffix when they directly preceeded the verb. Something like this:
Fa törik. "They break wood."
Then the -t suffux became more regular in this position too, which led to speakers hear both the old "Fa törik" and the innovative "Fát törik". Speakers with obligatory -t before direct objects anywhere probably reanalised the t-less nouns as subjects instead of objects:
Fát törik. "They break wood."
Fát tör. "He breaks wood."
Fa törik. "The wood (itself) breaks."
Then the -ik and not the -ják got fixed for all verbs. (hallják "they hear it", but hallik "it sounds, it is audible").
It seemed for a moment that Hungarian would develop a new, medial conjugation. But semantic changes and too much syncretism (same forms for ik-ed and ikless verbs) killed this project of Hungarian to be even more complex. Only the ruins remain: -om and -ik for indef. on verbs of completely random meaning, -ol and -sz living on as a phonetic rule (originally only ik verbs recieved -ol), and an extremely few word pairs like tör-törik, hall-hallik (dialectal).
@@benedektoth2646
Köszönöm szépen. nyelvész vagy?
Why is 3rd person hozni, hozza and not hozja?
because you're learning the hardest language in europe lol
It's because if a verb stem ends in -s, -sz or -z, the "j" sound in a suffix assimilates to these consonants.
Why do Hungarians say nem tudom magyarul and nem beszélek magyarul? Why not nem tudok magyarul and nem beszélem magyarul? I don't get it what's the point?
"Nem tudom magyarul" in incorrect, it's actually "Nem tudok magyarul". In this case "Nem tudok" doesn't mean I don't know, it means "I can't". If you happen to know how to say "I can" in Hungarian, then it should make sense.
"Nem beszélek magyarul" is correct.
But again, "Nem beszélem magyarul" is incorrect, becase the verb is in the definite conjugation but we don't have a definite object here (nor an indefinite, for that matter". So it actually should be "Nem beszélek magyarul".
But to summarize: "Nem tudok magyarul" literally means "I can't in Hungarian". It's one way of saying I don't speak Hungarian.
And "Nem beszélek magyarulo" literally means "I don't speak in Hungarian". Thsi is how we say I don't speak Hungarian.