Actually, in the last hand you should have counted the other two 9's towards the outs seeing as you would have no idea that your opponent was holding the two 9's in a real game.
To improve accuracy, substract 1, anytime the number of outs exceed 8. For example, on the flop against a flush draw, it would be 35%. 9X4=36-1=35. Assuming you have 10 outs, you subtract 2, and you keep subtracting an additional 1 % for every out exceeding 8.
This is actually wrong. You don't know your opponent has 99 so you would obviously count all the 9s as outs. It would be all the hearts which is 9 of them plus the remaining 3 aces plus the 6 queens and kings left and also the 3 remaining 9s which would be 21 outs for roughly 44% maybe even 45%. Always add 2 or 3% to make it closer to the actual %.
Kara you are underrated. Don't listen to the haters below. The math is designed to be a quick reference guide. And none of the fractions matter, it's the odds that count. Pot odds vs out odds. If the scenario were to play out above, there's no guarantee any of it would come out the way it's played in the video. But she says there's other factors so shut the hell up. Finally, she is gorgeous. Then end.
> "And none of the fractions matter, it's the odds that count." Tell us you don't understand mathematics without telling us you don't understand mathematics.
pot formula is always Total Pot size/bet size. Assume there is 20 on the pot. Your opponent bets 5. Total pot size is 25. you need 5 to 1 to call or 1/5= 20 %. This just means that your need to have at least 5 clean outs on the flop to call. Of course, implied odds play also a big role when making this calculations which is not mentioned in the video.
true that. this stuff is all calculated on the fly by feel and past scenarios, anyway, not multiplication of odds and outs. anyone who has played for a while has seen every scenario come across. you just kind of KNOW how much of a chance your hand has of improving. you just don't wanna be calling raises that are too high compared to your present equity in the hand. that's why i prefer to be the aggressor if i'm going to be chasing down a big draw like that. if you don't hit, you could still win.
On the flop you have two opportunities to hit your hand: the turn AND the river. On the turn you only have one more chance to hit your hand: the river. So, on the turn you effectively have half the chance of hitting your hand. As 2 is half of 4 multiplying by 2 gives the roughly half the odds you had on the flop.
in this scenario you got 15 normal outs. however if a jack AND an ace came on the turn and river (a million dolalr shot in hell but it's still an out) would you could you and shouldyou calculate that into the odds? And how would you do that? so are the outs here like 15.5 or something ?
The level of mathematical ignorance in the comments is depressing. 5:1 = 1/6 = 16.67% not 20% as stated in the video. And if you don't believe me, ask Google or Siri what 5:1 expressed as a percentage is.
5:1 is a total of 6 units, so 1/6 is your pot odds, which is 16.66%. To convert a ratio to percentage you do: right side divided by the total units on both sides, so 1/5+1 = 1/6 * 100 = 16.66% You may think that when you need to call t2500 into a total pot t7500, that you would need a 33.3% chance of winning the pot to be able to make the call. This a common misconception, when you call the t2500 to win the t7500, you actually recieve t7500 + t2500 (your bet back). Thus you would only need a 25% chance of winning the pot to call this to effectively break even; This is because if you had a 25% chance of winning then you win 1/4 times.. So let's say the first 3 times you call you lose, thus you lose t7500 in total, however on the fourth time you win, when you win you get t10000, you know t2500 of the t10000 were your calling chips in an attempt to win the pot, therefore only t7500 of the chips are the profit. This shows that on average you will gain/lose no chips in the long run statistically.
It's pretty abysmal to see a video that is supposed to make things simple for beginners contains schoolboy errors when it comes to simple maths. If the pot contains 25 and it costs 5 to call, the odds are 25:5 or 5:1, but as a fraction it's 1/6 and as a percentage it's 16.67%, not 20%.
5:1 is a total of 6 units, so 1/6 is your pot odds, which is 16.66%. You may think that when you need to call t2500 into a total pot t7500, that you would need a 33.3% chance of winning the pot to be able to make the call. This a common misconception, when you call the t2500 to win the t7500, you actually recieve t7500 + t2500 (your bet back). Thus you would only need a 25% chance of winning the pot to call this to effectively break even; This is because if you had a 25% chance of winning then you win 1/4 times.. So let's say the first 3 times you call you lose, thus you lose t7500 in total, however on the fourth time you win, when you win you get t10000, you know t2500 of the t10000 were your calling chips in an attempt to win the pot, therefore only t7500 of the chips are the profit. This shows that on average you will gain/lose no chips in the long run statistically.
Kara, in the first example there are 15 outs, not 9. It's hard to see, but 3Q's and 3K's + 9 hearts = 15 outs. The number of outs after the turn becomes 18, because an ace would make a straight. So your conclusion of 18% should - according to your rule of 2 - be 36%. Look it up Kara, in reality this chance is > 43%. I'm sure there are lots of other fields where you can comment on, but better not on poker.
None of this shit is true though bc if some of those players folded hearts (which I'm sure they did) then the actual chance of hitting a flush is lowered quite a bit and causing a false sense of a possible winning percentage.
Kara lost me when she said you have 9 "outs," and 47 total unknown cards = 36 per cent chance of hitting your flush. Hey, nine out of 47 = just under 20 per cent, not 36 per cent. Or am I missing something, here? When nine divided by 47 = 36 per cent, the planet is in trouble.
Yeah you're actually missing that after the flop you have to account for 2 future cards, the turn and the river. After the flop, with 9 outs, the % to hit one is: (9/47)+(9/46) = almost 38% So yea, the rule of the 4+2 gets the result almost exactly. it's a close estimate
Forget the outs. Kara Scott is so friggin' cute.
it's really 5 and 1. so there are 6 units. 1/6 is 16.666
Actually, in the last hand you should have counted the other two 9's towards the outs seeing as you would have no idea that your opponent was holding the two 9's in a real game.
20% is 4-to-1, not 5-to-1.
To improve accuracy, substract 1, anytime the number of outs exceed 8. For example, on the flop against a flush draw, it would be 35%. 9X4=36-1=35. Assuming you have 10 outs, you subtract 2, and you keep subtracting an additional 1 % for every out exceeding 8.
nice lol
Just curious, why is this the case? why do you subtract one?
on the flop you are actually a slight favorite. there are 15 outs to get a heart or a king or queen which would make the hand better than 9s.
This is actually wrong. You don't know your opponent has 99 so you would obviously count all the 9s as outs. It would be all the hearts which is 9 of them plus the remaining 3 aces plus the 6 queens and kings left and also the 3 remaining 9s which would be 21 outs for roughly 44% maybe even 45%. Always add 2 or 3% to make it closer to the actual %.
Kara you are underrated. Don't listen to the haters below. The math is designed to be a quick reference guide. And none of the fractions matter, it's the odds that count. Pot odds vs out odds. If the scenario were to play out above, there's no guarantee any of it would come out the way it's played in the video. But she says there's other factors so shut the hell up. Finally, she is gorgeous. Then end.
> "And none of the fractions matter, it's the odds that count."
Tell us you don't understand mathematics without telling us you don't understand mathematics.
I'm here for the odds of that button popping off by the end of this video...
The Jack brings out a straight draw, making for 15 outs, 15/46~33%.
Wow, I didn't think I could fall in love over the internet, but Kara Scott did it.
That seems like a slam dunk lawsuit. 5 times over.
So how many outs do I have with her? And what is that as a percentage?
You have 0 outs, so multiply your outs by 4 on the flop and by 2 on the river.
You basically have the same outs as Phil Hellmuth with her.
that's why she says it's not 100% accurate
so should pot odds formula be 5 / 30 = .16666 instead of 5 / 25 = .2??
pot formula is always Total Pot size/bet size. Assume there is 20 on the pot. Your opponent bets 5. Total pot size is 25. you need 5 to 1 to call or 1/5= 20 %. This just means that your need to have at least 5 clean outs on the flop to call. Of course, implied odds play also a big role when making this calculations which is not mentioned in the video.
This is incorrect, you'd need 1/6 = 16.66% chance to make the call not 20% as 5:1 is a total of 6 units.
@@danielmoctezuma3799 5:1 = 1/6 mate.
true that. this stuff is all calculated on the fly by feel and past scenarios, anyway, not multiplication of odds and outs. anyone who has played for a while has seen every scenario come across. you just kind of KNOW how much of a chance your hand has of improving. you just don't wanna be calling raises that are too high compared to your present equity in the hand. that's why i prefer to be the aggressor if i'm going to be chasing down a big draw like that. if you don't hit, you could still win.
Why is the multiplier 4 then 2?
On the flop you have two opportunities to hit your hand: the turn AND the river. On the turn you only have one more chance to hit your hand: the river. So, on the turn you effectively have half the chance of hitting your hand. As 2 is half of 4 multiplying by 2 gives the roughly half the odds you had on the flop.
I like this girl.
Wow, that is good to know
i dont understand how you got that can you please explain it to me ?
in this scenario you got 15 normal outs. however if a jack AND an ace came on the turn and river (a million dolalr shot in hell but it's still an out) would you could you and shouldyou calculate that into the odds? And how would you do that?
so are the outs here like 15.5 or something ?
i think the probability of getting two card's that you need back to back is like .3% so it wouldnt be worth calculating imo
I'd like to put her into practice
Kara i am Indian good friends
Kara nice girl❤️❤️💋
should of read your comment about the error first cheers
Literally did not catch a single word
its 20 my frend.
3 of clubs. shit happens.
The level of mathematical ignorance in the comments is depressing.
5:1 = 1/6 = 16.67% not 20% as stated in the video.
And if you don't believe me, ask Google or Siri what 5:1 expressed as a percentage is.
I love simple maths :)
7:40 Youre so cute that I remember just you, sorry haha
3:40
@onta1988 why?! 1 by 5 is 0.20 so.. why 16.666?!
5:1 is a total of 6 units, so 1/6 is your pot odds, which is 16.66%. To convert a ratio to percentage you do: right side divided by the total units on both sides, so 1/5+1 = 1/6 * 100 = 16.66%
You may think that when you need to call t2500 into a total pot t7500, that you would need a 33.3% chance of winning the pot to be able to make the call. This a common misconception, when you call the t2500 to win the t7500, you actually recieve t7500 + t2500 (your bet back). Thus you would only need a 25% chance of winning the pot to call this to effectively break even; This is because if you had a 25% chance of winning then you win 1/4 times.. So let's say the first 3 times you call you lose, thus you lose t7500 in total, however on the fourth time you win, when you win you get t10000, you know t2500 of the t10000 were your calling chips in an attempt to win the pot, therefore only t7500 of the chips are the profit. This shows that on average you will gain/lose no chips in the long run statistically.
Wow this girl's a 20.. I'm sure 100%!!
I got 20%
It's pretty abysmal to see a video that is supposed to make things simple for beginners contains schoolboy errors when it comes to simple maths. If the pot contains 25 and it costs 5 to call, the odds are 25:5 or 5:1, but as a fraction it's 1/6 and as a percentage it's 16.67%, not 20%.
why is it 1/6
your putting in 5 to win an additional 25, so that's 20% which is 1/5
correct
5:1 is a total of 6 units, so 1/6 is your pot odds, which is 16.66%.
You may think that when you need to call t2500 into a total pot t7500, that you would need a 33.3% chance of winning the pot to be able to make the call. This a common misconception, when you call the t2500 to win the t7500, you actually recieve t7500 + t2500 (your bet back). Thus you would only need a 25% chance of winning the pot to call this to effectively break even; This is because if you had a 25% chance of winning then you win 1/4 times.. So let's say the first 3 times you call you lose, thus you lose t7500 in total, however on the fourth time you win, when you win you get t10000, you know t2500 of the t10000 were your calling chips in an attempt to win the pot, therefore only t7500 of the chips are the profit. This shows that on average you will gain/lose no chips in the long run statistically.
There's a simple error here, but it isn't Kara's.
i hope she can counts how many baby were gonna have...
Kara, in the first example there are 15 outs, not 9. It's hard to see, but 3Q's and 3K's + 9 hearts = 15 outs.
The number of outs after the turn becomes 18, because an ace would make a straight.
So your conclusion of 18% should - according to your rule of 2 - be 36%. Look it up Kara, in reality this chance is > 43%.
I'm sure there are lots of other fields where you can comment on, but better not on poker.
Literally covered all that if you bothered to keep watching instead of racing to the comments to be a know-it-all
None of this shit is true though bc if some of those players folded hearts (which I'm sure they did) then the actual chance of hitting a flush is lowered quite a bit and causing a false sense of a possible winning percentage.
Doesn't matter overall. Any card is just as likely to be in play or in the muck as any other card, so the calculations work out in the long-term.
U are not taking in the folded cards or cards the opponent might have?? .I think this is BS
Kara lost me when she said you have 9 "outs," and 47 total unknown cards = 36 per cent chance of hitting your flush. Hey, nine out of 47 = just under 20 per cent, not 36 per cent. Or am I missing something, here? When nine divided by 47 = 36 per cent, the planet is in trouble.
Yeah you're actually missing that after the flop you have to account for 2 future cards, the turn and the river.
After the flop, with 9 outs, the % to hit one is: (9/47)+(9/46) = almost 38%
So yea, the rule of the 4+2 gets the result almost exactly. it's a close estimate
Thanks, and these things you helpfully explained, should have been part of the original explanation.
But I do like her, even though I know she can beat me up. lol
Alden Lewis Thank you for this explanation indeed
yes all these videos are horrible with explanation. Thye give NO reason thyeare using 2 and 4 multipliers.... she just said,.... do it..