Thanks David! I was curious, as my head has started to spin with all of these declension rules, how necessary are they in reading comprehension? It feels almost impossible to keep all rules in your head and memorize all words' declensions. I get that with enough time and repetition, perhaps it isn't as laborious, but I'm wondering if there are strategies to read Ancient Greek without knowing all the nuances of declensions?
You're welcome! In order to be able to read Greek as well as possible, you do need to know how nouns in every subgroup decline. But to learn this, you only need to memorise the declension of one or two nouns in each subgroup, and then you will have a paradigm/paradigms for that subgroup; these will let you know how all other nouns in the subgroup decline. I say "only", but I appreciate that it does seem like a lot to learn at first, especially with the third declension. However, as you say, time and repetition help - you should try to learn to write out the paradigmatic noun declensions from memory, or to verbally repeat them from memory, or both. Moreover, seeing nouns actually in sentences and recognising their case and number from their endings will help to consolidate your knowledge further. To show why you need to learn the paradigmatic declensions (or at least their endings) in order to read Greek, imagine that you are reading a Greek sentence and come across the noun βασιλεως without the definite article before it. Now, if you have not learned how 3g nouns decline - those of βασιλευς' kind - or the endings that they use, then you will not be able to tell which role it is playing in the sentence (it is in fact genitive singular, which we know from the ending -εως, which is the genitive singular ending for 3g nouns). Overall, you do indeed need to learn the paradigms which I am covering in my videos (or at least the endings that they use). But the third declension is the last group, and after learning it in addition to the first and second, you will be able to decline all regular nouns in Greek, which is the vast majority of them. Don't lose hope and keep up the good work with your Greek! I know that it must seem like a lot to learn, especially because I have put all three declensions together (when coursebooks typically teach them spread apart from each other), but I deemed it best to get them all done together. After we finish the third declension, we shall be moving on to a greater variety of topics. All the best!
Question, it’s not related to this specific video but how does possessive pronouns work, I have read a little about it but how would it work and which case is used in conversations? Like “this is my horse” or “that is your land”
It looks like declensions in Attic Greek contract in the same way as verbs do, is that correct? And are declensions in Koine Greek the same as in Attic Greek?
In response to your first question, yes, in Attic Greek, vowel contraction generally occurs in the same way in the declension of nouns (and also adjectives) as it does in the conjugation of verbs. I say "generally" because there are exceptions, like the one that I noted at 32:15 in this video. With regard to your second question, I have not studied Koine in isolation but I have read Koine Greek texts and, based upon my experience, nouns change their endings in Koine Greek as they do in Attic Greek. I say this because I am able to read Koine Greek (e.g., the New Testament) having learned the grammar of Attic Greek. In addition, I have just looked at some noun declension resources for Koine Greek and it seems that declinable nouns* do indeed change their endings in just the same way in Koine as in Attic. However, note that there may be some spelling changes in Koine, such as θαλασσα instead of θαλαττα, for instance. *I say "declinable" nouns because there are some indeclinable nouns in Koine Greek, like the names Ἰωσηφ ("Joseph") and Δαυιδ ("David") in the New Testament, for example. (I should say that indeclinable nouns do also exist in Attic Greek, but there are some indeclinable nouns in Koine that are not found in Attic Greek.)
@@justusr5998 Good question! As far as I’m aware, every 3d noun of the second kind is a man’s name (e.g. Ἡρακλης, Περικλης, Ἐμπεδοκλης), and so 3d nouns of the second kind do not exist in the plural. I hope that helps!
@@LearnAncientGreek I could imagine a scenario where multiple people of the same name are being addressed, especially with very common names or children. Say there's a group of children whose parents are all philosophers, so all three boys are named Socrates. How would you say, "I took the Socrateses to the park for their play date this morning." ?
My guess to the contraction of 3d: ee+a => ea: it is rather easily spoken. Even so ee+o => eou. But I can imagine that ee+i => ei because eei sounds like ei. Thus, has this just a phonetic reason?
If 3D nouns are always male names why aren't all male names 3D? Why has Plato been left out? Also, if I were to translate my name into Greek, how would I know how to decline it? or since it's foreign is it indeclinable? My theory for why "ee+i" would become "ei" is that the "i" of the dative case is coming from the subscript of the article "tw". Therefore, we are actually combining "ee+i,subscript" which is effectively just "e"+"e+i,sub" of which "e+i,sub" cancels to merely "e". Therefore we have "e+e" which contracts to "ei". Just a theory as I don't know if that logic carries throughout the language.
Hi Dustin, all 3d nouns are male names but not all male names are 3d nouns; some male names belong to other subgroups. In particular, some male names are 1d nouns, like Εὐρῑπιδης (Euripides) and Ἀναξαγορᾱς (Anaxagoras), some are 2a nouns, like Ὁμηρος (Homer), and others are 3a nouns, like Πλατων (Plato). That is why the declension of Plato's name is not taught here, since his name is a 3a noun, not a 3d noun. Good question about your name in Greek. If you transliterated it letter for letter, it would be Δυστιν. Some foreign names were indeclinable in Greek - I have seen this in Koine Greek for example, where foreign names like Ἰωσηφ (Joseph) and Ἰακωβ (Jacob) are indeclinable. However, I know that in the Classical period, the Greeks did "Hellenise" foreign names - that is, they made them conform to the phonetics and grammar of Greek. Your name, for example, could be Hellenised as Δυστινος and then function as a 2a noun. Finally, thank you for sharing your ideas pertaining to the contraction question. All the best! :)
Great video! I love the energy you bring to the subject; you make it fun!
Thank you very much! I'm glad to hear that :)
Thanks David! I was curious, as my head has started to spin with all of these declension rules, how necessary are they in reading comprehension? It feels almost impossible to keep all rules in your head and memorize all words' declensions. I get that with enough time and repetition, perhaps it isn't as laborious, but I'm wondering if there are strategies to read Ancient Greek without knowing all the nuances of declensions?
You're welcome! In order to be able to read Greek as well as possible, you do need to know how nouns in every subgroup decline. But to learn this, you only need to memorise the declension of one or two nouns in each subgroup, and then you will have a paradigm/paradigms for that subgroup; these will let you know how all other nouns in the subgroup decline. I say "only", but I appreciate that it does seem like a lot to learn at first, especially with the third declension. However, as you say, time and repetition help - you should try to learn to write out the paradigmatic noun declensions from memory, or to verbally repeat them from memory, or both. Moreover, seeing nouns actually in sentences and recognising their case and number from their endings will help to consolidate your knowledge further.
To show why you need to learn the paradigmatic declensions (or at least their endings) in order to read Greek, imagine that you are reading a Greek sentence and come across the noun βασιλεως without the definite article before it. Now, if you have not learned how 3g nouns decline - those of βασιλευς' kind - or the endings that they use, then you will not be able to tell which role it is playing in the sentence (it is in fact genitive singular, which we know from the ending -εως, which is the genitive singular ending for 3g nouns).
Overall, you do indeed need to learn the paradigms which I am covering in my videos (or at least the endings that they use). But the third declension is the last group, and after learning it in addition to the first and second, you will be able to decline all regular nouns in Greek, which is the vast majority of them.
Don't lose hope and keep up the good work with your Greek! I know that it must seem like a lot to learn, especially because I have put all three declensions together (when coursebooks typically teach them spread apart from each other), but I deemed it best to get them all done together. After we finish the third declension, we shall be moving on to a greater variety of topics. All the best!
Question, it’s not related to this specific video but how does possessive pronouns work, I have read a little about it but how would it work and which case is used in conversations? Like “this is my horse” or “that is your land”
You are God.
It looks like declensions in Attic Greek contract in the same way as verbs do, is that correct? And are declensions in Koine Greek the same as in Attic Greek?
In response to your first question, yes, in Attic Greek, vowel contraction generally occurs in the same way in the declension of nouns (and also adjectives) as it does in the conjugation of verbs. I say "generally" because there are exceptions, like the one that I noted at 32:15 in this video.
With regard to your second question, I have not studied Koine in isolation but I have read Koine Greek texts and, based upon my experience, nouns change their endings in Koine Greek as they do in Attic Greek. I say this because I am able to read Koine Greek (e.g., the New Testament) having learned the grammar of Attic Greek. In addition, I have just looked at some noun declension resources for Koine Greek and it seems that declinable nouns* do indeed change their endings in just the same way in Koine as in Attic. However, note that there may be some spelling changes in Koine, such as θαλασσα instead of θαλαττα, for instance.
*I say "declinable" nouns because there are some indeclinable nouns in Koine Greek, like the names Ἰωσηφ ("Joseph") and Δαυιδ ("David") in the New Testament, for example. (I should say that indeclinable nouns do also exist in Attic Greek, but there are some indeclinable nouns in Koine that are not found in Attic Greek.)
@@LearnAncientGreek Thank you very much for your elaborate response! Really appreciate it.
How does 3d of the 2nd kind decline in the plural forms?
@@justusr5998 Good question! As far as I’m aware, every 3d noun of the second kind is a man’s name (e.g. Ἡρακλης, Περικλης, Ἐμπεδοκλης), and so 3d nouns of the second kind do not exist in the plural. I hope that helps!
@@LearnAncientGreek I could imagine a scenario where multiple people of the same name are being addressed, especially with very common names or children. Say there's a group of children whose parents are all philosophers, so all three boys are named Socrates. How would you say, "I took the Socrateses to the park for their play date this morning." ?
My guess to the contraction of 3d: ee+a => ea: it is rather easily spoken. Even so ee+o => eou. But I can imagine that ee+i => ei because eei sounds like ei. Thus, has this just a phonetic reason?
So it would be correct to state that 3D.2 nouns are ALWAYS male names?
Based on everything I have read, yes :)
If 3D nouns are always male names why aren't all male names 3D? Why has Plato been left out? Also, if I were to translate my name into Greek, how would I know how to decline it? or since it's foreign is it indeclinable?
My theory for why "ee+i" would become "ei" is that the "i" of the dative case is coming from the subscript of the article "tw". Therefore, we are actually combining "ee+i,subscript" which is effectively just "e"+"e+i,sub" of which "e+i,sub" cancels to merely "e". Therefore we have "e+e" which contracts to "ei". Just a theory as I don't know if that logic carries throughout the language.
Hi Dustin, all 3d nouns are male names but not all male names are 3d nouns; some male names belong to other subgroups. In particular, some male names are 1d nouns, like Εὐρῑπιδης (Euripides) and Ἀναξαγορᾱς (Anaxagoras), some are 2a nouns, like Ὁμηρος (Homer), and others are 3a nouns, like Πλατων (Plato). That is why the declension of Plato's name is not taught here, since his name is a 3a noun, not a 3d noun.
Good question about your name in Greek. If you transliterated it letter for letter, it would be Δυστιν. Some foreign names were indeclinable in Greek - I have seen this in Koine Greek for example, where foreign names like Ἰωσηφ (Joseph) and Ἰακωβ (Jacob) are indeclinable. However, I know that in the Classical period, the Greeks did "Hellenise" foreign names - that is, they made them conform to the phonetics and grammar of Greek. Your name, for example, could be Hellenised as Δυστινος and then function as a 2a noun.
Finally, thank you for sharing your ideas pertaining to the contraction question. All the best! :)