Hi Patrick, a coil below its natural resonance frequency behaves like an inductor, so it's current lags the applied voltage. At resonance the current and voltage are in phase because both inductive and capacitive reactances are equal yet opposite. However an inductor operating above it's natural resonance frequency has more capacitive reactance than inductive reactance so it behaves like a capacitor with current leading the applied voltage. Due to this fact, at certain frequencies the currents in L1 and L2 are travelling in opposite directions so they can add to produce zero current at the node. Yet their algebraic total can exceed the measured input current to the circuit by many times. Meaning yes under these conditions can be achieved.
Would we assume in this case {for clarification} that {example} L1 is at resonance base and L2 some harmonic of that ? Or another way to state it , is say L1 is x base resonance, then say L2 is a sub harmonic of that . Then by inputting the x base resonance of L1 then L2 would be in a state of {excess offset} as you stated , while L1 would be at base resonance, i really don’t understand what a ‘current’ is only inductive inertia so I have a difficult time translating these sometimes, maybe this is my flaw ? My translation would look like this : When an inductor operates at a level above base standing wave then the tractor force is above 0 offset , so think of a gyroscope wheel , at base resonance this is a 0 state offset , move above that and you have that much more tractor force offsetting the inertia. So the inductor acts like a tractor device ‘a capacitor’ We have two inductors, L1 and L2 in the circuit, if you have one at the 0 offset state {say L1} and one in a state that has an excess of tractor force {L2} by degrees , then these two acting simultaneously will offset the total inertia of the device, so input inertia could be 0 and output {actualized inerta } could be sums above.
smokyatgroups why it would function is much more interesting....maybe a super simplified translation:??. Think two gyroscope wheels on a common shaft , but somehow one wheel can be at a rotational frequency sums higher than the other wheel , this wheels tractor force offsets and compensates the first wheel which still can be used for inertia to do work. That’s real ‘magik’ lol
@@kolinevans9127 @Kolin with a perfect resistor current starts to flow as soon as the voltage is applied. With a perfect inductor current doesn't start to flow immediately, it initially looks like an open circuit, so current gradually builds. Hence the current lags behind the applied voltage. If the applied volts are alternating (AC) the current can lag by up to a quarter of a cycle or -90 degrees behind the ac volts. It is the opposite situation for a capacitor, when we try to charge a capacitor it looks like a short circuit initially so there's little or no voltage until charge gradually builds. With applied AC volts to capacitors current can lead by up to +90 degrees. With AC currents passing through perfect inductors and perfect capacitors, one being +90 degrees with respect to voltage the other -90 degrees ). We can see the two currents are travelling at 180 degrees to each other (opposite directions) at the same moment in time so the 2 currents can and do mathematically cancel each other out (sometimes only partially though). With coiled inductors, as ac frequency increases, current gradually finds it easier to pass across the airspace between the coil's wire turns and the layers of turns than to pass though the wire itself. So coils eventually become capacitors as frequencies increase. So if we have 2 non-similar coils each one has its own frequency point where it starts to look like a capacitor, in it's response. Hope this is clearer.
smokyatgroups yes its clear thank you , it’s hard for me to translate a physical analog but with an ideal force vector a shaft will spin immediately, with a large mass of inertia the force vector will lag until the rotational frequency offsets the inertia so there will be a non linear force vector. The inversion of that is a wheel already at velocity so the tractor force is already present on that device. The tractor force is always at a 90 deg vector to the angular force which is an expansion force , at ‘resonance’ rotational frequency. Yes you have made this clear and I can understand it thank you for your contributions to this conversation I hope that Patrick will read these and have a think about it. I have been testing and observing the inertia shift from ‘left’ to ‘right’ as I shift the frequency from the resonance base above it and below it, the two inertia are offset at a 90deg when the larger mass is at the rotating frequency of the smaller mass base standing wave resonance. Then below towards the larger mass base standing wave resonance the inertia is 180 offset , then at larger mass base they are aligned again together. At the resonance point I’m looking at the ratio at which the smaller mass inductor inertia ‘cuts’ across the larger mass from peak to peak it looks like about 1.618 to me but I’d have to measure it. Thanks again for the comment.
thankyou, but i never did succeed with free energy from transformers, - but i discover how to abuse iron with a custom designed waveform in order to increase efficency above conventional levels. ua-cam.com/video/0CxcDT5p1lI/v-deo.html
yes it is fascinating, that is the direction i am going, however we differ in methodology, - he does great work ;-D . also. have you seen Chris's ascessment of Tinmans work ? ua-cam.com/video/dgtTQpPiVdU/v-deo.html
Hi Patrick, a coil below its natural resonance frequency behaves like an inductor, so it's current lags the applied voltage. At resonance the current and voltage are in phase because both inductive and capacitive reactances are equal yet opposite. However an inductor operating above it's natural resonance frequency has more capacitive reactance than inductive reactance so it behaves like a capacitor with current leading the applied voltage. Due to this fact, at certain frequencies the currents in L1 and L2 are travelling in opposite directions so they can add to produce zero current at the node. Yet their algebraic total can exceed the measured input current to the circuit by many times. Meaning yes under these conditions can be achieved.
Very helpful comment I hope Patrick saw this. Thanks for sharing.
Would we assume in this case {for clarification} that {example} L1 is at resonance base and L2 some harmonic of that ?
Or another way to state it , is say L1 is x base resonance, then say L2 is a sub harmonic of that . Then by inputting the x base resonance of L1 then L2 would be in a state of {excess offset} as you stated , while L1 would be at base resonance, i really don’t understand what a ‘current’ is only inductive inertia so I have a difficult time translating these sometimes, maybe this is my flaw ?
My translation would look like this :
When an inductor operates at a level above base standing wave then the tractor force is above 0 offset , so think of a gyroscope wheel , at base resonance this is a 0 state offset , move above that and you have that much more tractor force offsetting the inertia.
So the inductor acts like a tractor device ‘a capacitor’
We have two inductors, L1 and L2 in the circuit, if you have one at the 0 offset state {say L1} and one in a state that has an excess of tractor force {L2} by degrees , then these two acting simultaneously will offset the total inertia of the device, so input inertia could be 0 and output {actualized inerta } could be sums above.
smokyatgroups
why it would function is much more interesting....maybe a super simplified translation:??.
Think two gyroscope wheels on a common shaft , but somehow one wheel can be at a rotational frequency sums higher than the other wheel , this wheels tractor force offsets and compensates the first wheel which still can be used for inertia to do work.
That’s real ‘magik’ lol
@@kolinevans9127 @Kolin with a perfect resistor current starts to flow as soon as the voltage is applied. With a perfect inductor current doesn't start to flow immediately, it initially looks like an open circuit, so current gradually builds. Hence the current lags behind the applied voltage. If the applied volts are alternating (AC) the current can lag by up to a quarter of a cycle or -90 degrees behind the ac volts. It is the opposite situation for a capacitor, when we try to charge a capacitor it looks like a short circuit initially so there's little or no voltage until charge gradually builds. With applied AC volts to capacitors current can lead by up to +90 degrees. With AC currents passing through perfect inductors and perfect capacitors, one being +90 degrees with respect to voltage the other -90 degrees ). We can see the two currents are travelling at 180 degrees to each other (opposite directions) at the same moment in time so the 2 currents can and do mathematically cancel each other out (sometimes only partially though). With coiled inductors, as ac frequency increases, current gradually finds it easier to pass across the airspace between the coil's wire turns and the layers of turns than to pass though the wire itself.
So coils eventually become capacitors as frequencies increase. So if we have 2 non-similar coils each one has its own frequency point where it starts to look like a capacitor, in it's response. Hope this is clearer.
smokyatgroups yes its clear thank you , it’s hard for me to translate a physical analog but with an ideal force vector a shaft will spin immediately, with a large mass of inertia the force vector will lag until the rotational frequency offsets the inertia so there will be a non linear force vector.
The inversion of that is a wheel already at velocity so the tractor force is already present on that device.
The tractor force is always at a 90 deg vector to the angular force which is an expansion force , at ‘resonance’ rotational frequency.
Yes you have made this clear and I can understand it thank you for your contributions to this conversation I hope that Patrick will read these and have a think about it.
I have been testing and observing the inertia shift from ‘left’ to ‘right’ as I shift the frequency from the resonance base above it and below it, the two inertia are offset at a 90deg when the larger mass is at the rotating frequency of the smaller mass base standing wave resonance.
Then below towards the larger mass base standing wave resonance the inertia is 180 offset , then at larger mass base they are aligned again together.
At the resonance point I’m looking at the ratio at which the smaller mass inductor inertia ‘cuts’ across the larger mass from peak to peak it looks like about 1.618 to me but I’d have to measure it.
Thanks again for the comment.
Floyd Sweet was using Barium Ferrite Cores
thankyou, but i never did succeed with free energy from transformers, - but i discover how to abuse iron with a custom designed waveform in order to increase efficency above conventional levels. ua-cam.com/video/0CxcDT5p1lI/v-deo.html
Did you see TinMan's experiment with the two secondaries and the two LEDs?
yes it is fascinating, that is the direction i am going, however we differ in methodology, - he does great work ;-D . also. have you seen Chris's ascessment of Tinmans work ? ua-cam.com/video/dgtTQpPiVdU/v-deo.html