A very important lesson clearing up residual doctrines from catholicity that are being used to cast doubt on the new testament, particularly by Toviah Singer. It is so important understand the OT as well as we can. Thank you Chad
Another interesting connection between the Josephs perhaps-- Obviously in the Matthew text one of the HUGE things is the idea of God With Us, ie, Immanuel. All throughout the Genesis account of Joseph's life, the phrase "and the Lord was with him" is sprinkled in.
As you indicate, עַלְמָה perfectly reflects the state of Mary: of marriagable age but only betrothed - not consumated. It would be odd that the LORD gives Ahaz the options of a sign a low as Sheol and as high as heaven and then settles for a young girl getting pregnant. By contrast Jesus is the offspring of the Spirit and the human - by the rules of Genesis, He must be both God and man - a person who both descends into Sheol and rises to heaven. It is a prophesy perfectly fulfilled.
If foreshortening is your preferred interpretation of Isa 7, who do you propose is the child born of "marriageable girl"/"virgin" that would satisfy the prophecy? I've heard some people say that it might've been Hezekiah, but I'm not too sure myself about the whole gist of the argument. Granted, you didn't elaborate on this point, but supposedly prophets were killed if their prophecies didn't come to pass, so an OT fulfillment could/might be possible. Personally, I'm more of a direct prophecy guy, but any enlightenment on this quesion would be greatly appreciated. Thanks.
Yes, Hezekiah is often put forth as a reasonable possibility. Later Jewish interpretation understood Isaiah 7:14 as fulfilled in Hezekiah. Another possibility is one of Isaiah's own children.
Ok saying you are right then why did our Lord ask John to take care of his mother when he had other brothers and sisters . I am sure Joseph had some inheritance for the ‘brothers and sisters’ and he who gets the largest takes care of the parent . Jesus asking John when he had other brothers and sisters seems far fetched . And john did have his own mother ( remember zebedee) . And this our Lord said on the cross, one of the last saying before his excruciating death on the cross . With all due respect , it’s because you are not from that part of the world . Mothers and fathers are not given to an old age home it’s considered sacrilegious to the law . And most importantly , Joseph being a righteous man , who feared the Almighty , when he knew that Mary had conceived by the Holy Spirit , the tabernacle of the word of God , would he dare ? Remember the Lord asked Moses to remove his sandals because the place he stands is holy . I think not . Her womb carried the Most high. Think from Joseph’s perspective ?
Where Does JESUS Say that he was born of a Virgin ??? If this was True or important then Jesus would have said it Many times... Show Where JESUS said this to Prove that he was Born of a Virgin .....
And mention, in AlKitab (the Book), Mary, when she withdrew from her family to a place toward the east. And she took, in seclusion from them, a screen. Then We sent to her Our Spirit (Angel Gabriel), and he represented himself to her as a well-proportioned man. She said, "Indeed, I seek refuge in the Most Merciful from you, [so leave me], if you should be fearing of Allah ." He said, "I am only the messenger of your Lord to give you [news of] a pure boy." She said, "How can I have a boy while no man has touched me and I have not been unchaste?" He said, "Thus [it will be]; your Lord says, 'It is easy for Me, and We will make him a sign to the people and a mercy from Us. And it is a matter [already] decreed.' (Al-Quran Translation/interpretation Chapter Mary/Maryam(19) : 16-21) Peace
The Gospel writer spoke of Elizabeth as Mary's "cousin", NOT as Mary's 'sister' and therefore the notion that Jesus' brothers and sisters were only relatives as opposed to biological "brothers and sisters" isn't supported by scripture.
I understand your audience however using Old Testament as legitimate term creates a division no prophet or apostle ever spoke of, your use of Jerome’s poor choice of terminology is troubling considering your level of scholarship. Simply the scriptures or the Torah is more than enough, and to say that the Old Testament is Israel’s scriptures as if Matthew to Revelation is not also Israel’s scriptures is a gross error. Christianity creates a false dichotomy that does not exist, the new covenant is with Israel and Judah, and as Peter says in Acts 2: 38Kefa said to them, “Change your ways, everyone of you+, and be immersed in the name of Yeshua the Messiah for the forgiveness of sins; and you+ will receive the gift of the Ruakh Kodesh. 39For the promise is to you+ and to your+ children, and to all who are far off, even as many as the Everpresent Lord, our God, will call to Himself.”
There are many terminological choices throughout church history that I see as less than ideal, the name "Old Testament" being one of them. But sometimes, both in humility and in the service of clarity, we use them because they are used almost universally. I speak the language of the church, to people of the church, even when it is (what I consider to be) not perfect or precise. Thanks for watching.
Those 30 minutes passed through me with inspiration and enlightenment and the peace and promise are ours Chad!
A very important lesson clearing up residual doctrines from catholicity that are being used to cast doubt on the new testament, particularly by Toviah Singer. It is so important understand the OT as well as we can. Thank you Chad
Thank you brother Chad. Needed this additional commentary for my Bible study this week.
Brilliant! Thanks Chad!
Excellent video and instruction.
Another interesting connection between the Josephs perhaps-- Obviously in the Matthew text one of the HUGE things is the idea of God With Us, ie, Immanuel. All throughout the Genesis account of Joseph's life, the phrase "and the Lord was with him" is sprinkled in.
As you indicate, עַלְמָה perfectly reflects the state of Mary: of marriagable age but only betrothed - not consumated. It would be odd that the LORD gives Ahaz the options of a sign a low as Sheol and as high as heaven and then settles for a young girl getting pregnant. By contrast Jesus is the offspring of the Spirit and the human - by the rules of Genesis, He must be both God and man - a person who both descends into Sheol and rises to heaven. It is a prophesy perfectly fulfilled.
If foreshortening is your preferred interpretation of Isa 7, who do you propose is the child born of "marriageable girl"/"virgin" that would satisfy the prophecy? I've heard some people say that it might've been Hezekiah, but I'm not too sure myself about the whole gist of the argument. Granted, you didn't elaborate on this point, but supposedly prophets were killed if their prophecies didn't come to pass, so an OT fulfillment could/might be possible. Personally, I'm more of a direct prophecy guy, but any enlightenment on this quesion would be greatly appreciated. Thanks.
Yes, Hezekiah is often put forth as a reasonable possibility. Later Jewish interpretation understood Isaiah 7:14 as fulfilled in Hezekiah. Another possibility is one of Isaiah's own children.
How did u know about the word virgin?
I’ve studied Greek and Hebrew for many years.
Ok saying you are right then why did our Lord ask John to take care of his mother when he had other brothers and sisters . I am sure Joseph had some inheritance for the ‘brothers and sisters’ and he who gets the largest takes care of the parent . Jesus asking John when he had other brothers and sisters seems far fetched . And john did have his own mother ( remember zebedee) . And this our Lord said on the cross, one of the last saying before his excruciating death on the cross .
With all due respect , it’s because you are not from that part of the world . Mothers and fathers are not given to an old age home it’s considered sacrilegious to the law .
And most importantly , Joseph being a righteous man , who feared the Almighty , when he knew that Mary had conceived by the Holy Spirit , the tabernacle of the word of God , would he dare ? Remember the Lord asked Moses to remove his sandals because the place he stands is holy . I think not . Her womb carried the Most high. Think from Joseph’s perspective ?
Where Does JESUS Say that he was born of a Virgin ??? If this was True or important then Jesus would have said it Many times... Show Where JESUS said this to Prove that he was Born of a Virgin .....
And mention, in AlKitab (the Book), Mary, when she withdrew from her family to a place toward the east.
And she took, in seclusion from them, a screen. Then We sent to her Our Spirit (Angel Gabriel), and he represented himself to her as a well-proportioned man.
She said, "Indeed, I seek refuge in the Most Merciful from you, [so leave me], if you should be fearing of Allah ."
He said, "I am only the messenger of your Lord to give you [news of] a pure boy."
She said, "How can I have a boy while no man has touched me and I have not been unchaste?"
He said, "Thus [it will be]; your Lord says, 'It is easy for Me, and We will make him a sign to the people and a mercy from Us. And it is a matter [already] decreed.'
(Al-Quran Translation/interpretation Chapter Mary/Maryam(19) : 16-21)
Peace
The Gospel writer spoke of Elizabeth as Mary's "cousin", NOT as Mary's 'sister' and therefore the notion that Jesus' brothers and sisters were only relatives as opposed to biological "brothers and sisters" isn't supported by scripture.
To be specific, Luke calls Elizabeth her συγγενίς, which is a generic word for "female relative." Perhaps they were cousins but we cannot be certain.
I understand your audience however using Old Testament as legitimate term creates a division no prophet or apostle ever spoke of, your use of Jerome’s poor choice of terminology is troubling considering your level of scholarship. Simply the scriptures or the Torah is more than enough, and to say that the Old Testament is Israel’s scriptures as if Matthew to Revelation is not also Israel’s scriptures is a gross error. Christianity creates a false dichotomy that does not exist, the new covenant is with Israel and Judah, and as Peter says in Acts 2: 38Kefa said to them, “Change your ways, everyone of you+, and be immersed in the name of Yeshua the Messiah for the forgiveness of sins; and you+ will receive the gift of the Ruakh Kodesh. 39For the promise is to you+ and to your+ children, and to all who are far off, even as many as the Everpresent Lord, our God, will call to Himself.”
There are many terminological choices throughout church history that I see as less than ideal, the name "Old Testament" being one of them. But sometimes, both in humility and in the service of clarity, we use them because they are used almost universally. I speak the language of the church, to people of the church, even when it is (what I consider to be) not perfect or precise. Thanks for watching.