i dont mean to be so offtopic but does anyone know a trick to get back into an instagram account?? I was dumb lost the account password. I appreciate any assistance you can offer me.
Particle acceleration =local(temporal) acceleration + convective acceleration. Acceleration is zero ( @30:10 ) not only because the flow is steady (making temporal acceleration zero) but also because the flow is fully developed (making the convective part of acceleration zero as well, ofcourse with the simplification that flow is 1-D so v=w=0). Also, I believe axi-symmetric flow implies del(any flow property)/del(theta)=0 (no variation of any flow property like three velocity components and pressure along the azimuth). Correct me if I am wrong, but that's what I think! Good lectures, anyway!
Thank you so much sir, aapki video bhut jyada effective hoti hai . Sir ek request AAPKI AGAR FLIGHT MECHANICS OR GATE AEROSPACE KE SUBJECTS KI CLASSES AGAR AVAILABLE KRA DE TO BHUT BDI HELP HO JAYEGI
minor loses in piping system are : a) less than the friction factor losses b) due to viscous stresses C)assumed to vary linearly with velocity D)obtained by using loss coefficients E)independent of the flow rate
At 30:18 Why are you considering only local acceleration? In F=ma, does the acceleration term not mean net or total acceleration. If that is so, we must take into account the convective acceleration or assume the flow to be uniform?? Please clarify...
might be I am wrong but if find my question genuine...please suggest... @12:33 in third line of derivation , The upper A in numerator is the area of the section, from which liquid is passing... The A in denominator is the area of surface which is in under study of viscocity.. I mean the denominator A is representing the surface area for which we had derived the viscous force... What I think, both these area is not the same , then what is the logic behind canceling out both of these A.. I might be wrong , anyone who can clear my confusion....
At the 30:42 sec you explained acceleration is 0, how ? In steady flow local acceleration is 0 but convective acceleration is not zero. So how you said that total acceleration is 0. Please explain?
Venugopal sir your teaching approach is outstanding. Sir i would be greatly obliged if you explain FLOW BETWEEN PARELLEL PLATE, KE and MOMENTUM ENERGY CORRECTION FACTOR..
Problem:- general sinusoidal velocity profile for laminar boundary-layer flow on a flat plate can be taken as u =A sin (By) + C. State the three boundary conditions applicable to the velocity profile, and thus evaluate thei constants A, B, C. Sir give solution
Sir actually you mention that the local acceleration is zero, but there will be convective accelation, ie Velocity will change along x,y & z. Since we have assumed asymmetric flow , the velocity will not change along theta. But it will change along x and z so there will be acceleration right? If this right then we cant be able to put a=0. Kindly explain
Sir discharge ki value nikaalte time dQ me area 2(pi)r dr li h but aage Q/A me A ki value (pi)R square h. Sir dQ ke time bhi area (pi)r square hona chaahiye kya?
Onkar Sharma dQ is discharge through elemental area. Therefore 'da' is area of elemental fluid. thus, da=pi(r+dr)^2-pi.r^2 Solving above eqn we get, da=2.pi.r.dr+pi.dr^2 since dr is infinitely small pi.dr^2 is neglected. Thus da=2.pi.r.dr
in the video of Euler equation derivation, we considered acceleration as convective and local, there as it was steady flow, local acceleration becomes zero and convective acceleration exists which involved as velocity term in the equation, but here acceleration is considered as local only, we didn't consider convective acceleration in the derivation of Hagen poiseuille equation, so what would be the reason for it sir ?
please sir don't confuse us. At last you have derived the equation only for pressure loss and then you divide it by (row,g) to derive head loss. it not the Hagen-Poiseuille flow. for Hagen-Poiseuille flow we need the volume flow rate for laminar flow through a horizontal pipe of diameter D and length L. This equation is known as Poiseuille’s law, and this flow is called Hagen-Poiseuille flow in honor of the works of G. Hagen (1797-1884) and J. Poiseuille (1799-1869) on the subject
Sir that area and area u are cancelling na in derivation of reynold number its wrong itseems because one area is flow area another area is peripheral area
if i have a spiral tube, and if i want to calculate the frictional loss what length i have to consider, the curvilinear path or only the height between two end ?
for average velocity , why cant we directly integrate the equation of velocity and then take its mean ? Please answer if someone knows the reason . Ik that it gives a different answer if would give 1/12 instead of 1/8 times the whole term() .
Bahut Badiya Seedhi BAAT No Bakwaas
54 minutes Worth it All Concepts Cleared .
Thanks so much sir...you and your gate academy plus team for their dedication...
i dont mean to be so offtopic but does anyone know a trick to get back into an instagram account??
I was dumb lost the account password. I appreciate any assistance you can offer me.
@@liamanson3082 bsdk parhai pay focus kar insta ko lan mar
Particle acceleration =local(temporal) acceleration + convective acceleration. Acceleration is zero ( @30:10 ) not only because the flow is steady (making temporal acceleration zero) but also because the flow is fully developed (making the convective part of acceleration zero as well, ofcourse with the simplification that flow is 1-D so v=w=0). Also, I believe axi-symmetric flow implies del(any flow property)/del(theta)=0 (no variation of any flow property like three velocity components and pressure along the azimuth). Correct me if I am wrong, but that's what I think! Good lectures, anyway!
Thank you sir...
I like your way of teaching...
It's simply THE BEST...
thank you so much sir ji ......aaj ka lecture ekdam bindas wala hai....
Saurabh Dubey thanks....
your always welcome sir...
Thanks a lot sir🙏🙏... you cleared all my doubts and explained everything very well
sir, you are awesome. If possible please make videos on another missing subjects also. I am very very thankful to you
Sir aapka explanation is superb .. each and every thing is explained in detail .... Tq sir for your efforts .
One of the detailed and great lecture i have ever seen 👍👍
Sir, Add a tag "Navier Strokes" for this video ,
@@shubhamkumargupta3478 bhaiya 2 saal pehle comment diya tha
phir apne comment pe recomment
gazab aadmi ho
@@Ab-lifts 😂 are koi comment delete krdiya iske upar wala 😂
Thank you so much sir, aapki video bhut jyada effective hoti hai .
Sir ek request AAPKI AGAR FLIGHT MECHANICS OR GATE AEROSPACE KE SUBJECTS KI CLASSES AGAR AVAILABLE KRA DE TO BHUT BDI HELP HO JAYEGI
i am very thankful to you sir
You are a magician sir. I am sure of my strength ie. Fluid mechanics..
Plz start with thermodynamics also your superbly teaching thanku sir plz plz thermodynamics
Awsm way too teach
Thnk uuh soo soo much sir... 🙏
ise kehta hai teacher ..... waah sirji chaah gaye aap
Ayush Rathore thanks
Thank your for all the efforts. Very well explained.
Thoroughly explained .. Thanks alot
Thanku very much sir... Your videos are really helpful. Upload videos daily and u are awsome👍👍
Lavleen Dhalla thanks
Best lecture for Reynolds number 😀
Awesome👏✊👍..
Excellent lecture of all time ❤
Your video provide very clear concept
No doubts please because ur lectures r simply superb k.
Thank u so much sir for explaining very easy way to understand................
Thanku so much sir ..your lecture is more helpful for exam sir
Sir - college mai apne experiment kiya hoga.
Me - 🔔 kuch nahi kiya, tabhi ye haal hai.😂😂😂
op bolte
minor loses in piping system are :
a) less than the friction factor losses b) due to viscous stresses
C)assumed to vary linearly with velocity
D)obtained by using loss coefficients
E)independent of the flow rate
thank u soo much sir very conceptual session & i solved gate question
You are great sir your way of explanation is too good sir ....
please give the video on the other civil engineering topics.. thank you sir
At 30:18
Why are you considering only local acceleration?
In F=ma, does the acceleration term not mean net or total acceleration. If that is so, we must take into account the convective acceleration or assume the flow to be uniform??
Please clarify...
the flow is steady. so no convective acceleration
Flawless
He issssssss masterrrrr piece..
mazaa aagay sir... you tech very nicely
sir, aaapke teach krne ka tareeka bahut accha he
Excellent sir
Thankyou.
might be I am wrong but if find my question genuine...please suggest...
@12:33 in third line of derivation ,
The upper A in numerator is the area of the section, from which liquid is passing...
The A in denominator is the area of surface which is in under study of viscocity.. I mean the denominator A is representing the surface area for which we had derived the viscous force...
What I think, both these area is not the same , then what is the logic behind canceling out both of these A..
I might be wrong , anyone who can clear my confusion....
At the 30:42 sec you explained acceleration is 0, how ? In steady flow local acceleration is 0 but convective acceleration is not zero. So how you said that total acceleration is 0.
Please explain?
It's 1d flow and pressure differential constant therefore acceleration is 0
Because we consider uniform flow
it is very helpful for me ,thanku sir
Wonderful teacher..please take more questions
thanks u so much sir..
super duper video lacture
Awesome sir....
That's Darcy's equation or Hagens equation..the last one?
Best video for me
Thank u sir
Thank you sir👌👌👌👌
Venugopal sir your teaching approach is outstanding. Sir i would be greatly obliged if you explain FLOW BETWEEN PARELLEL PLATE, KE and MOMENTUM ENERGY CORRECTION FACTOR..
This is for masters degree bro not here .
Sir please explain the laminar flow through the inclined pipe (viscous)
Why we don't consider the convective acceleration in Hagen poise....equation
If pressure gradient is constant then there will be no convective acceleration
Thanks a lot sir
Thank you so much sir 👍👌🙏❤️🔥😎
Great job sir ...
Explain physical significance with practically relevent examples & simultaneously describe it mathematically......
Why you have not considered convective component of acceleration in shear stress distribution?
Same question
Please reply
Thank you sir 😊❤️
Nice lecture 🙏
Sir
In shear stress distribution
What is the meaning of negative sign
Plz explain
the shear stress is opposite to the direction of flow.
Sir, you are great
NICE CLASS SIR
Problem:- general sinusoidal velocity profile for laminar boundary-layer flow on a flat plate can be taken as u =A sin (By) + C. State the three boundary conditions applicable to the velocity profile, and thus evaluate thei constants A, B, C.
Sir give solution
Sir actually you mention that the local acceleration is zero, but there will be convective accelation, ie Velocity will change along x,y & z. Since we have assumed asymmetric flow , the velocity will not change along theta. But it will change along x and z so there will be acceleration right? If this right then we cant be able to put a=0. Kindly explain
Nice lecture !!
Sir discharge ki value nikaalte time dQ me area 2(pi)r dr li h but aage Q/A me A ki value (pi)R square h. Sir dQ ke time bhi area (pi)r square hona chaahiye kya?
Onkar Sharma
dQ is discharge through elemental area. Therefore 'da' is area of elemental fluid.
thus,
da=pi(r+dr)^2-pi.r^2
Solving above eqn we get,
da=2.pi.r.dr+pi.dr^2
since dr is infinitely small pi.dr^2 is neglected.
Thus da=2.pi.r.dr
Thank you so much sir..
Kaash hamare time me bhi koi video banane wala hota...
nice videos sir
Thanks sir.
Sir, what indicate " - " Sign in shear stress distribution and velocity distribution
Dear sir please make videos lectures on Fluid Machine also..,,......
Sir kindly make a video on energy equation for viscous flow. I need this topic urgently
thankyou sir
in the video of Euler equation derivation, we considered acceleration as convective and local, there as it was steady flow, local acceleration becomes zero and convective acceleration exists which involved as velocity term in the equation, but here acceleration is considered as local only, we didn't consider convective acceleration in the derivation of Hagen poiseuille equation, so what would be the reason for it sir
?
or as it was pipe flow which means uniform flow, convective accelereation maight be zero
waiting for next video
Thank you so much sir
Any weightage on this topic in gate? Any questions asked in gate based on this topic?
sir last me pressure difference p2-p1 hona chaiye na
aapne usme p1-p2 likha hai because integrate to aap 2nd boundary to 1st boundary karre ho
please sir don't confuse us. At last you have derived the equation only for pressure loss and then you divide it by (row,g) to derive head loss. it not the Hagen-Poiseuille flow.
for Hagen-Poiseuille flow we need the volume flow rate for laminar flow through a horizontal pipe of
diameter D and length L.
This equation is known as Poiseuille’s law, and this flow is called Hagen-Poiseuille flow in honor of the works of G. Hagen (1797-1884) and J. Poiseuille (1799-1869) on the subject
Sir ye discharge through elements me umax see ke multiply kiye 2pirdr me
What happened to convective acceleration
Sir plz make vedio for flow through annulus
Sir, You should change the title of this video ro "Laminar Flow"
Sir shear stress equation for pipe flow turbulent flow ke liye bhi valid hai...
Sir, how can we cancel Area by area in Reynolds no......bcz both areas are different... please explain
Sir can you pls explain why u(velocity) expression is negative?
sir, explain about power calculation in flow in pipe
Sir that area and area u are cancelling na in derivation of reynold number its wrong itseems because one area is flow area another area is peripheral area
if i have a spiral tube, and if i want to calculate the frictional loss what length i have to consider, the curvilinear path or only the height between two end ?
The length through which the fluid flows
sir sare equations me jo negative sign hai vo kya indicate kar raha hai? please explain it.
Super sir
Sir Kay apki koi online coaching hai Kay..! I'm interest to join your coaching
pls Sir, do you have lectures that you have done in English?
V good
Sir soil mechanics kha bhi video banana 🙏
Sir please aap navier stokees equn pr video upload kr dijiye
for average velocity , why cant we directly integrate the equation of velocity and then take its mean ? Please answer if someone knows the reason . Ik that it gives a different answer if would give 1/12 instead of 1/8 times the whole term() .
1/6*
Thanku sir...
Sir y is the pressure gradient constant ?why does it making it const makes accln zero
Sir deference between viscous force and viscosity
sir yaha pe aapne ... u = -(1/4U).. liya hua hai, aur next video mai numerical mai u= -(1/8U) liya.....aisa kyu..why? [ yaha pe U= muee]
Muje bhi yehi doubt hai
U said for steady flow there will be no acceleration...but acc. also depends on spatial coordinates...wrong statement..(IIT)