Let's summarize: - Spanish and Dutch start becoming French Lite - French will sound like Portuguese with a lite version of Polish palatalization and German Rs - Hebrew develops pitch accent - Arabic doubles its vowel inventory - Amharic develops a brand new noun class system - Romanian develops a virile/non-virile distinction in 1000 years
What I don't get is, because Arabic has vowel length, where is the standardised variety has it 5 vowel sounds? They have three of which every can be lengthened.
Furthering frenchization of Spanish, I see some dialect going full liaison, like, normal [s] sound when a final s links to an initial vowel, and full deletion otherwise. Also, I know of some dialects that have this schwaization of final vowels. Very French!
Please say Brazilian Portuguese, inb4 Portuguese people start saying they speak the original one and therefore we shouldn't be generalized etc. etc. (they do not in fact speak "the original one")
@@salmanman2699It is not a "Frenchification" of the language, but rather an Andalusianism. It is something characteristic of the southern dialects of Spain, which were the most widespread in the Spanish empire.
@@Mazorca-qq3li As someone from latin america, I really hate Andaluisan Spanish and how it's praised here by many. I seriously think it's such an overrated accent. The only feature about Andalusian Spanish I have is the aspiration of s in final position or at the end of syllable.
Native French speaker here (from Paris western suburbs). 1) I agree with this, but I hear a lot of people pronouncing /ʁ/ as [ɰ] or [ʕ] in between vowels. I think the phoneme /ʁ/ will evolve into something like [ʁ̞] after a voiced stop, [χ] after a voiceless stop and [ɰ]/[ʕ] in other positions. I’ve also heard some people skipping the voiceless stop when it’s between a vowel and [χ] (e.g. « après » pronounced [aχɛ] instead of [apχɛ]). I’ve also thought about R after a vowel not being pronounced, resulting in a long vowel, unless there’s a vowel after, like in British English (e.g. « parler » pronounced [paːle] instead of [paʁle]). 2) In fact, this shift has already occurred in Southern French and suburban/youth speech, but /t/ and /d/ are pronounced [t͡ʃ ] and [d͡ʒ] before /i/ and /y/. This is not an influence from Congolese French but a natural phenomenon (think about Québécois or Brazilian Portuguese). I’ve even heard once someone affricating the /t/ before /u/, so maybe it will be more generalized? 3) Yeah this shift is happening, not only with /e/~/ɛ/ but also with /ø/~/œ/ and /o/~/ɔ/. Some people can’t hear the difference between those pairs (especially in the South of France). Basically, there will only be 3 levels of vowel height (close, close-mid and open) instead of 4 (the open-mid is disappearing) in the phonological system. Notice that all these shifts are particularly true for suburban French but not for the other varieties. As all regional accents are slowly dying out due to the strength of prescriptivism in France, I think that in the future, the accents will vary more from socioeconomic backgrounds rather than regional backgrounds, with all these shifts being the accent from lower class and the current standard accent being the upper class accent. Besides, it’s funny to see that the shifts from Future Spanish all happened during the shift from Old to Modern French haha
Dude, I thought I was alone by pronouncing après as /aχːɛ/, though I tend to geminated the fricative. It's fun to know that a new phoneme is being added to the language. I also tend to observe that in Paris the /ʁ/ tends to be devoiced also in word final position - terre [tɛːχ], while it becomes an approximant in other positions like you said ([ʁ̝] or [ɰ]). I think there's a general tendency to drop intervocallic non-sibilant voiced fricatives, with an intermediate approximant phase : ça va [sa.va] → [sa.ʋa] → [sa.a] chéri [ʃe.ʁi] → [ʃe.ʁ̝i] → [ʃe.i]
@@cheune6677That video of Linguisticae is a goldmine! I also completely agree about the possibility of long vowels reemerging, but I realised just recently that the lengthening isn't only restricted to coda r, compare "con" and "conte". It's actually pretty complex and depends on the type of vowels, the english article on wikipedia about french phonology explains it pretty well. I also think that the unaspirated final vowels will spread from the high vowels to the low and back ones , with an epenthetic [h]instead of an /ç/ being added at the end. Thinks of people saying "je veux ça" [j ͜ vø sḁhː] or "beaucoup" [bo.ku̥h]
@@thibistharkuk2929 Haha that's the power of knowing linguistics, I pay more attention to how people speak :D But yeah I agree with all the things you said, there will eventually be a new phoneme /χ/ in French, with a distinction between /χ/ and /ʁ/ similar to /r/ and /rr/ in Spanish and Portuguese.
@@thibistharkuk2929 About the unaspirated final vowels : for the back vowels I hear [ɸ] rather than [h] but that's true. However I think this phenomenon is more typical of the Parisian/upper class accent, as it seems to be more accepted. I often hear it in the traditional medias but in everyday life I only hear it with Parisians (I also do it though, idk why lol).
A trend I've noticed with Portuguese (my native language) is that people are starting to pronounce words like "Nós" /ˈnɔs/ as /ˈnɔjs/ or /ˈnɔis/. In my dialect (Southern Brazil) it's not very common, most people (including me) pronounce it as /ˈnɔs/, but recently I've seen more and more people saying /ˈnɔjs/ or /ˈnɔis/, which is very interesting cuz this has always been really frowned upon in the region I was born in, it has always been considered a thing that only uneducated lower class people do, but now it's a big trend.
Its a feature of southeastern dialects, its getting more popular because interregional communication and stuff like youtube and tiktok made it easier for traits of other varieties, specially ones already regarded as standard/prestige to spread. My own sister (we are from RS) started adopting traits from northeastern and paraense dialects lol, even as the general pronunciation remains the same.
@@jamm6_514 That's very interesting. I've been living in Norway for 12 years and recently I visited the city I was born in (Caxias do Sul) and noticed that a lot of people are pronouncing these words that way, way more than I remember from when I was a child. I'd say a similar thing is happening in Norwegian where common dialects in media are influencing other dialects.
And what’s even crazier is that in informal settings, at least in my accent (Caipira), people pronounce it like /'nɔj/ when speaking fast. I know I and the people around me do it all the time!
@@猫が好きすぎて猫背に Yes same! I'm not Caipira but usually pronounce it like that , and pronouncing the s when talking slowly feels a bit weird 😭. It's also common to switch the "s" for a r sound, and that can obviously be dropped too since it's common to drop final Rs.
7:55 this palatalization can be heard in France but I don't know if it comes from Congolese French, I mostly associate it with some low-class or southern accents. Fun fact: a few months ago some newspaper published articles about this phenomenon and then idiots all over social media thought that "affrication" had something to do with Africa (or maybe they didn't really believe it but they thought they were very funny, and according to them anyway any change in French is bad and must come from immigrants). I find the thing about vowel harmony weird, to me it's simply weird to have [ɛ] or especially [ɔ] in an open syllable, regardless of what is in the next syllable.
The spanish predictions feel very Chilean and Caribean tbh. As a Chilean I already drop the "ð̼" sound between vowels in words (i.e. dado = dao, pulido = pulío, etc.). A quick note is that the estar -> ehtar -> etar could also result in a etʰar or etsar, much like Andalusian Spanish. Both Chile and Caribbean dialects descend from Andalusian Spanish, and if we consider that languages in The Americas usually are more similar to the original 1500s-1700s colonizer language than their current European counterparts, there is a chance our languages go that route
Incluso en Córdoba, Argentina, tenemos un regionalismo reconocidísimo en todo el país: «culiáu» ("culiado" que, originalmente, era un insulto, pero que ahora se usa como vocativo apelativo, incluso).
Not really, an Andalusian would pronounce the h in hijo and hija, because everywhere where an f got h, they retained still the h sound in those words. While in Latin American Spanish they don't.
As a Cairene egyptian arabic speaker, I would like to confirm that emphatic consonant are completely lost with the vowels being the sole marker of them and this causes many spelling errors with us. also emphatic sound spread all over the word like vowel harmony and there is also devoicing at syllable coda. a common joke explaining this would be egyptian incorrect spelling of نقد and اصطياد as نقط and اصطياط . southerner still maintain true emphatic consonants tho watch القريفاني channel and you will hear him pronouncing them clearly.
sup fellow egyptian im from cairo too. I want to add as well that people over-emphasize that root-and-pattern morphology makes the language underlyingly very different when it's not. many "root+template" combinations are very idiomatized in semitic languages that speakers certainly just think of such a words without dividing them into a root and a pattern. when i say madrasah مدرسة for example I just know the word means "school" I don't divide it into d-r-s root and a maf'alah template cuz this is useless here just the word just means "school" synchronically. for an analog for this in english, you got many verbs in english ,from latin origin, that start with the preffixes "con-, ex-" like "ex-pire, ex-plode, con-struct, con-strue, ...etc." but native english speakers never naturally divide these into a root and a prefix because it's unproductive morphology they just memorize the whole thing's meaning in a sentence.
What you've described for spanish sounds almost the same as my dialect, although my vowel system has also changed a bit, my vowels /e/ and /o/ opens when close to a final s, also my /l/s and /ɾ/s sometimes get mixed at the end of words and recently I noticed I sometimes pronounce intervocalic /n/ like /ɾ/. Honestly I doubt that many of those sound changes will generalize but still wanted to comment it
That's quite cool that Spanish's disproportionate tendency towards alveolar sonorant metathesis is alive and well, ostensibly millennia since it began :D
@@enricobianchi4499 I'm not sure if thats called metathesis as I don't change the order of phonemes, instead what I meant was that sometimes I'd pronounce words like "Animal" as /æɾ̃im'æɾ/ (My /a/s also get fronted often, and that final /ɾ/ is only pronounced like that if it is followed by a vowel, everywhere else it would lengthen the vowel, so in isolation, the word would be /æɾ̃im'æ:/).
15:31 As a Romanian native speaker and a passionate grammarian, I will say that, despite the fact that the overwhelming majority of inanimate objects are neuter, that's not because there's a tendency for feminine nouns to become neuter, but it's because throughout history (expanding for at least one thousand years, if not more) there has been an inflow of neologisms and borrowings from other languages and we never perceive the neuter nouns as inanimate; they're just some nouns that behave differently. Secondly, throughout history, there has been a continuous slow tendency for neuter nouns in Romanian to become feminine and when they become feminine we only perceive them as being feminine, not animate or inanimate. Thirdly, there will always be an inflow of neologisms and borrowings from other languages and the majority of them will continuously feed the neuter category.
yeah, it s just also that masculine almost always ends with a consonant, and feminine with a vowel that i dont see the neuter changing completely to feminine without it sounding super weird, although adopting the masculine plural is technically possible. Maybe if vowel ă disappears for the feminine and the result would be a feminine word ending in consonant, such a change might take place for femine as well
The last point for dutch loses its strength when you realize many dutch speakers already liaison final r and l to words that begin with h as if it wasn't there
I think liaising away initial h is very common. I even do it in my own name. Dutch will not lose its schwa as it is readily introduced in words that do not follow the "iambic" speech pattern. I would expect more schwas to show up in consonant clusters, as can be heard already: dertig => derretig, melk => mellek, straat => steraat (especially in accents that have lost the rolling r).
2:30 Some dialects of Spanish already do this, particularly Caribbean (including North Venezuelan) and Canarian dialects. Mine for example pronounces them as such: [tːaꜛ] - estar [ˈpːehu] - espejo [kːuˈtʃa] - escuchar Also note the deletion of [e] at the beginning of the words before “sC” clusters.
Part of your Spanish prediction already occurs in Andalucía, Extremadura and Murcia you have geminated consonants (voiceless obstruents are also aspirated, and geminated t can be fricativised in some areas) more than a h+consonant secuence. In fact, eastern Andalucía and Murcia don't actually use h for S in any case, and you have a tongue root vowel harmony process in which you can hear from 8 to 10 different vowel sounds. On the one hand elision of intervocalic d is also habitual in many parts of Spain and its becoming more and more common in a very short time span. On the other hand B and G are usually pronounced. Past participles ended in -ado and -ido end up being pronouced ao (dipthong) and ío (hiatus) but we havent developed anything similar to vowel length while eliding D in nada or todo, remaining as na and to with a short vowel.
@@pedrodevicentelopez3650 no estoy seguro no se mucho al respecto yo hablo desde mi experiencia personal y las palabras en general que terminan en con son sílabas de "D" como da ,de di, do , du o en una D se puede eliminar la D como el ejemplo : nada -> naa otro ejemplo como : yo te he dado algo --> yo te he dao algo , la "D" se elimina y también ocurre con todos los verbos o palabras que terminen en "R" ejemplos: Correr -->corree Mirar --> miraa Construir --> construii Nido --> nioo Empujar --> empujaa Dividir --> dividii Casualidad --> casualidaa Electricidad --> electricidaa Todo esto ocurre con normalidad pero aveces no con en todas las palabras como por ejemplo la palabra "nada"del verbo nadar yo nunca he escuchado a alguien decir (el naa bien ) pero si he escuchado mucho ( tu no tiene naa) no se por que pasa poro es interesante.
@@aminabel4289creo que es por analogía. Como la D tónica se pronuncia, nadie dice “naar”, y entonces la pronuncian en todas las conjugaciones. Acá en México también se está volviendo común saltársela, pero la R se conserva
If you're gonna make a part 2, you should include Portuguese. Here's some things that I've noticed that are slightly changing in the accent of my region (São Paulo metropolitan area) that can became a general feature in the future: * I've noticed that before an ending S we add a semivowel j before, like in "vocês" (you) is pronounced like /vo.'sejs/, this feature is even stronger in accents like the ones from Rio, were it happens in every S's at the end of a syllable, even in words like "mesmo" (same) that's /ˈmejʒ.mʊ/ where in São Paulo it would be /ˈmez.mʊ/ * The palatalized TI and DI pronounced as /tʃi/ and /dʒi/, is slightly becoming /ʃi/ and /ʒi/ respectively, like "verdade" can sound like /veɹ.ˈdaʒʲ/ instead of /veɹ.'da.dʒɪ/
Second one ... I think you're hearing a weakly-articulated [tɕ] and [d̥ʑ̊], they're more palatalized and often devoiced but still an affricate. Verdade, *verdache (deleting the -e like someone from Portugal would) and *verdás (removing the yod *ajɕ) would NOT rhyme for me and I also have that weakening, [d̥ʑ̊], [ʃ] and [ɕ] respectively (yes, we theoretically could contrast [ʃ] and [ɕ] in Portugal and in Rio, guanache and *guanás also sound very different).
A good way to train yourself to notice the difference is pretend to be a carioca and say dentes. [ˈdẽ̞ɘ̯̃.tɕɕ̩] vs [ˈdẽ̞ɘ̯̃.tʃɕ̩], the first sounds like it could be dente but just saying dentttte, the second definitely sounds like dentes. The first dentes you could try weakly articulating for as far as you want but it still won't sound like denxes or denxe. Segura aí que de chiado eu entendo 😂
Here are some things I want to say about the Dutch section of the video: I don't think I have that "Katten in" liaison, I just say /de kɑtə ɪn/, also, I might have noticed myself using intervocalic /ɾ/ for 'd' (like in the word bedden), not fot 't' though. It would actually be "geaspireerde H" and not "geäspireerde H", since 'ea' is not a diphthong in Dutch and as such wouldn't be confused as one. I'm not sure if the schwa is gonna get dropped, and in a word like hond/honden, there's still the final consonant devoicing that needs to be accounted for, it would seem weird if it suddenly went from ɦɔnt/ɦɔndə to ɦɔnt/ɦɔnt
i do also wanna mention that most people don't pronounce the h in het. also, i do have intrusive n. in fact, i also have it in places where it historically isn't present!
@@purple_purpur7379the issue is, that ›et‹ is a cognate of German ›es‹, while the h-forms died out in Middle High German. They follow the hīc haec, hoc as cognates. So in Old High German, hiz, and iz are to different pronouns, the same as her and er are to different pronouns. her means *this he* while er means *he* only. The same with hiz means *this it* while iz means *it* only. In some German dialects this distinction is still alive. I know from a Hessian dialect that het Büdsche (this store) is different to et Büdsche (the store). But also in German in *heute* (today), the h-form is contained from hiu tagu (instrumental case masculine: at this! day).
I don't think it's underway. I believe it's done in most part of Québec (it doesn't exist in more eastern accents): tu and ti as (tsu) and (tsi), and du and di as (dzu) and (dzi). But I don't see them morph into tshu, tshi and dju, dji.
I'm a 66 year-old Canadian francophone and have never heard (or pronounced) them any other way in this country - other than by foreigners, of course. Locals can, of course, differ in the extent to which these are pronounced in "exagerated" ways...
Apropos the French vowel harmony: the dominant trend in metropolitan French is to treat mid-high and mid-low oral vowels as positional allophones merging them to mid-low in closed syllables and to mid-high in open syllables. This process does not affect Quebec French, but is present to various degrees in Belgian and Suisse French
As a learner of French, this explains a lot. I always got confused when to use which e, because I felt like many people used a closed e where I would expect an open one and now I know I'm not crazy
@@joriskbos1115 In careful speech and high registers (public announcements, theatre, audiobooks, etc.), these distinctions are usually maintained, but not always and not by all speakers
I would say the trend in France is the spreading of Position law for un-accented mid-vowels (already the norm in Southern french and in Mid-eastern french/Switzerland), and in some many places (mostly in South and West) on accented É/È. The other big trend is the movement on nasals. The merging of UN/IN has put instability in the nasals and AN is closing. The nasals are moving too in Quebec french but they are moving backwards and are opening. These traits are already quite commons in medias and unnoticed. The palatisation phenomenon is more socially despised and may not go further. It may even occur some strong hypercorrection reactions.
@@steftef5323 Exactly my thoughts. These pairs e/ɛ ø/œ o/ɔ are not undistiguished due to replacement by the mid-close vowels in each pair, but the distinction is moving towards the "Loi de la position". In Northern France, for instance, the phonetic distinction between Simple Future and Conditional (Je mangerai/Je mangerais) has been lost in virtually all of France. Whereas with o/ɔ there seems to be some resistance due to the fact that o generally corresponds to Open Mid /ɔ/ and au/eau are nearly always pronounced as closed mid /o/.
In Quebec french I'd say generally o ɔ and ø œ oppositions are unchanged, but the e ɛ opposition in open syllables is very unstable except for the last vowel which fully maintains the opposition, ie most people couldn't tell you if it's éléphant vs eléphant vs élephant vs elephant, but "manger" vs "mangeait" are still fully distinct.
As a French native speaker from Paris, a few things: - The palatalization/affrication (to me it's affrication but there's room for debate) is well under way and it's not just before /i/, it's also before "u" /y/. So "tu dis" (you say) is pronounced something like /tʃy dʒi/. It hasn't reached formal speech yet but it's spreading fast. Our former PM Gabriel Attal even used it in a speech (although it was a speech that he delivered in front of farmers and maybe as someone who never left the 6th arrondissement of Paris he thought it made him sound less formal and more "popular", even though affrication is pretty much nonexistent in rural areas of France, but I digress). EDIT: come to think of it, for T and D actually there's a social divide between an upper class / White / older generation palatalization and a working class / suburban / non-white / younger generation affrication -While most people have noticed it for /t/ and /d/, I think I have noticed it for other plosives as well. /k/ definitely becomes something like /kç/ before /i/ and /y/, so "qui" and "c*l" become something like /kçi/ and /kçy/. /g/ also affricates (or palatalizes depending on who you ask) a little bit before those vowels to something like /gʝ/ although it's a little bit less stark (I've read papers suggesting /c/ and /ɟ/ but that's not my personal impression). Finally, while I don't think I've noticed /p/ and /b/ being affected by /i/ or maybe just ever so slightly, they do change to something like /pɸ/ and /bβ/ before /y/, so "pu" and "bu" become something like /pɸy/ and /bβy/. EDIT: actually, come to think of it, there's a weird thing where while /y/ does trigger a bilabial fricative, /i/ I think actually triggers palatal fricatives /ç/ and /ʝ/ after the bilabial plosives /p/ and /b/. Which makes sense in a way given /i/'s relation to /j/, which is a palatal, and given the roundness of /y/. *Sorry I didn't have the little IPA hat that you put to show that two consonants are pronounced as one unit. - About the 'aimais" / "aimé" contrast at 9:06, yeah, to me that one's a goner. At the very least, /aimé/ is just pronounced /eme/ now. Pronouncing "aimais" as /ɛmɛ/ sounds weird and old-fashioned to me, so I don't see it surviving. Pronouncing it as /emɛ/ doesn't sound as weird though, to me it's in free variation with /eme/. - About /ʁ/ : yeah, it's definitely happening, it's even stronger than what you say in my opinion, at least in Parisian French which is quite influential. I could see it becoming something like Semitic Ayin /ʕ/, or even disappearing altogether after vowels, maybe not back vowels.
About the /k/ and /g/ before /i/ and /u/: maybe that depends from the regions but I definitely hear /c/ and /ɟ/. I don't remember who did it but there has been a study where Hungarian speakers were asked to copy in Hungarian spelling an audio in French . They tended to write /ki/ and /ky/ "tyi" and "tyü" (which is pronounced [ci] and [cy] in Hungarian) rather than "ki" and "kü".
Brazilian Portuguese also has palatalized /ni, nĩ/, /ki, kĩ/, /gi, ɡĩ/, /mi, mĩ/, /ʁi, ʁĩ/ ([çi, çɪ̃]) and /fi/ (the latter only in Rio de Janeiro) as well as palatalization AND glottalization of /li, lĩ/ (glottalization only in the Southeast, Center-West, and some in Amazon, Bahia, and the coast of Santa Catarina) plus glottalization of /ɾi, ɾĩ/ (palatalization is more rare) which nobody talks about. There are many exceptions, though, forianopolitanos pronounce /ti/ and /di/ as [t̠ʲi] [d̠ʲi] (alveolo-palatal) which is extremely close to how we produce /ki/ /gi/ [k̟ʲi ɡ̟ʲi] (palatalized pre-velar, maybe some friction sometimes like in France) in Rio.
@@cheune6677 Interesting. And "ki"/"kü" would be pronounced /kçi///kçy/ in Hungarian? I know I pronounce it more like /kç/, it's defo a fricative cause I can prolong the sound and there's no /j/-ish quality to it. And I don't think it's an idiosyncrasy on my part but I'll pay closer attention to other people's renditions
@@ArturoSubutex I don't speak Hungarian, but according to Wikipedia it's just pronounced as a normal stop (which seems logical to me since it would be hard to distinguish [ci] from [kçi]).
A quick prediction about Japanese since I'm here, I think /w/ is about to go and the only reason it hasn't is because the particle は is still pronounced with /w/. There are even some forms like あたし where a previous /w/ has vanished. We have historically seen the /wi/ and /we/ merge with /i/ and /e/ respectively. Japanese has never had /wu/ (unless you reconstruct it for symmetry reasons I guess but that's on thin ice). More recently, /wo/ has merged with /o/. If this keeps going, goodbye /w/ as a phoneme. I say give it ~100 years? It could also go the entire other route and strengthen to /β̞/ but I find this less likely
apparently the latter has already happened according to the wikipedia a 2020 real-time mri study has shown that it's better described as [β̞] rather than [w] or [ɰ], which is how it was described as traditionally
i'd not write /w/ off as det to die for now. you still have like a shitton of recent loans with plenty various /wV/ combinations (albeit they are sometimes nativised to /uV/ tbf)
@dimanyak373 I'd have to see the original study for context. There's a few situations in which one would be inclined to enunciate their speech or another limiting context like at the beginning of words or other things like that.
For the Spanish changes i would like to point attention to the accent from Córdoba, Argentina. Not only it is doing both the coda s->h and dropping intervocalic b/d/g, it already has long vowels that stand out when compared to other dialects. It is currently entirely allophonic as it is tied to the stress pattern of the word but a few sounds being dropped messing with the syllable count could easily make the long vowels phonemic.
Can confirm, I am Brazilian and it's pretty tough to understand northern Argentinians but not hard at all to understand Paraguayans and Uruguayans. Deletion of consonants is the most tough feature of Spanish for me bar none.
1:55 As a native Spanish speaker, I agree almost 100% with this prediction. I rarely pronounce a pure s before another consonant. However, I mostly pronounce the s before a vowel or h. For example I say: "loh gatoh" (or loh gatos) but "los arboleh" (or los árboles). I hardly ever say "loh arboleh" because with the s not only does it sound better but it flows better in my mouth. It's kind of like the liaison in French. 2:35 Interesting prediction. It's very likely this will happen. 3:05 You rarely hear? What kind of Spanish speakers have you been spending time with?? These three variations of d, b and g are soft sounds per se. Maybe very casually and informally you won't hear them but with enough listening practice you will definitely hear them I've also been studying French for several years so... 7:10 I've actually heard both sounds coexisting. I tend to produce the approximant much more as a non native speaker because it's easier for me. My throat doesn't hurt hahaha 7:50 THIS. I've realized they do this but I can't pronounce t and d like them. I just say /t/ and /d/ not /tj/ /dj/. I still can't understand how I'm supposed to pronounce them without saying "ti" and "di". In fact with t, I get confused with the aspirated t in English.
I have been in the Netherlands for 23 years and have noticed they have been using a lot of English loan words dressed up in Dutch grammar. I recently read a novel and was shocked at the level of use of English words where a perfectly good Dutch alternative exists eg “fixen” vs “repareren” and “printen” vs “afdrukken” just to mention a couple.
In swedish reparera is borrowed directly from latin (so we are looking at early church influence here, before the protestant reformation), also had a look at the wiki and it seams like dutch borrowed this word from old french, so it might not be the best example to support your theory
Those aren't English loans. fixen is a completely Dutch version of German fixieren. The same with repareren, which is the version of German reparieren. And why is printen the English loan?
I like that your prediction of french is the things I as a non-native living in Paris already do. The only thing missing is further merger of the nasals. Oh, and a thing really missing is further reduction of unstressed /e/ and /ɛ/ - it's already somewhat common in function words like j'étais being pronounced like j'tais
I'll add for Hindi hindi will redevelop its case system, in modern Hindi when spoken we tend to add the post position in word root only like it's more common to say mere charge sāmnē over mere ghar ke sāmnē. then rāmnē sitāko phal diyā. (this one is like almost done in all dialects) verbs loosing gender agreement(meaning hindi starting to loose its gender)(this is already in its process where we have femine or non feminine)(or masculine or feminine) this is where we get rekhta and rekhti split.(this one is fully done) hindi verbs becoming more agglutnative and the /h/ sound shifting to more or less /v/ /j/ geminated depending on the area(this one will cause rahā/rahī/rahēn/rahīn to become rhā rhī rhēn and rhīn where in plural the genders gonna merge (actually no it already has happened). hindi developing clusitivty (since my dialects along with western hindi already has it). hindi getting noun classifiers in some dialect since I grew up speaking both bengali and hindi. often I also use noun classifiers.(this is shared with many speakers ig)(you can correct me) hindi getting more suffixes like in bengali we merged auxiliary verbs to particles like likhe dio to likhedio and likhe gelam to likhegelam both now meaning two different ideas same will happen in hindi) due to dropping of hiatus and linking). like likhdio, likhagayā.same going for others. hindi developing more moods.and an inchoative aspect from the verb --uṭh getting gramaticalised to a suffix like likhuṭhnā to start writing. then developing of evidenciality(shared with russian). next hindi suffxing its pronouns to the verb endings
For Hebrew: Like you said about the long vowels, this has already been happening. It's also been one of my personal predictions for quite some time now. In my own speech I've noticed that when the second of two identical vowels is stressed, I sometime insert a very weak consonant, maybe a sort of glottal approximant (I don't know how common this is). Raising the pitch exactly as you did sounds like question intonation, and I raise it slightly less. So maybe question intonation could be made more exaggerated, to make "space" for the rising tone. About voicing assimilation, I've heard it, but way more in older speakers (including שׁ and also across word boundary!). Not to say that younger speakers don't do it, but less. And *progressive* voicing assimilation has already happened sometime in history, as can be seen in Dt-stem verbs with ז as the first root letter (compare הזדקר vs הסתגר). I've also noticed that some inflected prepositions (chiefly את, של, and ל־) are commonly weakened, and I think this could lead to a re-innovation of enclitic pronouns. E.g. לך loses its initial consonant and vowel and becomes 'ך, which can get attached to the previous word as in שיקר'ך (if the previous word ends in a vowel, the ך might get compensatorily geminated). Note that in this specific case, the resulting form is identical to the original enclitic pronoun, except that it's unstressed.
I feel like in Puerto Rican Spanish at least, syllable final N will start to disappear and become affect the vowel before it, turning it into a nasal vowel (so "pan" will be pronounced /pã/ instead of "pan" or "paŋ", the latter being the current Boricua pronunciation). Also, I hear some F sounds being pronounced as /ɸ/ and J is disappearing, so I'd say F becomes /h/ and J becomes silent (like H did)? Also current RR in some dialects is pronounced as /χ/, so maybe that will also get softened or maybe it'll continue like that, but then again, it's more of a rural thing, so maybe it'll actually disappear in favour of /r/. Heck, maybe R and RR will merge into /ɾ/. I think words that start with ES will also begin to lose the E and the S (estar will go from /eʰtal/ → /tal/ for example, which I hear happening already). Those are just some of my predictions for Borcua Spanish based on some of my observations, however most Boricuas I come into contact with are in the States, so maybe the changes will be different on the island. This is all assuming that Spanish doesn't die out anong Puerto Ricans in favour of English though
Here's some possible future changes to my native language, British English (specifically, the general dialect spoken in London and the Home Counties) Firstly, piggybacking off what you said in your Future American video: - The aspirated plosives will probably all become affricates (this has already happened in Scouse (the dialect spoken in Liverpool), and is starting to happen in Cockney and Estuary) - in addition, I also think syllable-final plosives (including voiced plosives) will also become affricates, since I notice myself saying "ʃɛd͡z" by accident quite a lot, and turns out I'm not the only one who does this - Pre-yod "h" will not be dropped - we actually had our own way of dealing with yod clusters, and that was through yod-coalescence (except for alveolar nasals, where we drop the yod just like you do in the US), ie merging the two consonants in the cluster into a single postalveolar or palatal consonant (this is why British people say "choose-day" instead of "twos-day"). In the case of /hj/, this coalesced into /ç/, giving us /çʉʊ̯d͡ʒ/. - H-dropping has taken place in most dialects in the UK already, but I'm not so confident in this happening universally anymore because MLE (Multicultural London English), a dialect partially influenced by Cockney, as well as Jamaican, Indian, Bengali, Nigerian, etc, English, and which is at the top of the influence heirarchy (young, urban, used by all genders), put the /h/ back in, even though Cockney dropped /h/. Estuary (the dialect I speak) doesn't drop /h/ either (for the most part; it's complicated). Therefore, I do think /h/ will be here to stay. And yes, I do think MLE will influence the general London/Home Counties dialect a lot in the future. I think a “compromise” dialect between MLE and Received Pronunciation will also become a thing, like what happened with Cockney (Estuary is effectively just Diet Cockney), and, for the record; this is the dialect I’m predicting. - There is starting to be an allophone wherein before any back vowel that is close-mid or more open, it is pronounced as the pharyngeal /ħ/ instead, e.g. "hot" is pronounced /ħɔʔ/. I think this allophone will become more universally used by more Britons in the future. - Regarding consonant clusters; to set the scene, in informal speech, in scenarios wherein the "glottal t" (bɔʔəl ə woʔʌ) would happen with /t/, /p/ and /k/ are instead /ʔ͡p/ and /ʔ͡k/, respectively (except word-finally), so "paper" is /pʰɛɪ̯ʔ͡pʌ/, and "baker" is /bɛɪ̯ʔ͡kʌ/. I think that in the future, the digraph /kt/ (ʔ͡kt) will first simplify to /ʔt/ (which I already do by accident sometimes), and then simplify further to just /t/, which would make the "glottal t" fully phonemic - meaning /fɐt͡s/ (I'll explain the vowel shift later) would not be "fat", but rather "fact"; fat would be /fɐʔ/. - Cockney and Estuary already changed their dental fricatives to the equivalent labiodental fricatives, except the word-initial voiced dental fricative, which is either /d/ or /d̪/, depending on the speaker). MLE also did the same thing, except all word-initial dental fricatives, regardless of voicing, became plosives, so, famously, MLE speakers pronounce thing as /tʰɪŋ/. The exception is in the trigraph “thr”, where it became a fricative as well, so “through” is /fʋʏː/. I think MLE rules for what to do about dental fricatives will become the norm in Future British English. - I don’t think I need to tell you that the /w/ to /ɣʷ/ shift will not happen in British English, since we don’t have a Spanish-speaking community large enough to influence pronunciation. Since Latinos are the largest minority group in the US, let’s look at how the /w/ is pronounced by our largest minority group, Indians. In Indian English, they pronounce both /w/ and /v/ as the labiodental /ʋ/, just like in Dutch and Norwegian, two other Germanic languages. And sure enough, we are starting to see a shift to /ʋ/ in British English… from /ɹ̠/. Yes, there is a phenomenon called r-labialisation taking place all over Britain right now, where the r-sound is starting to be pronounced as /ʋ/. It is currently considered “defective” by some people, but to be honest, enough people do it now that it’s not really a speech defect anymore, it’s just an alternative way of pronouncing /ɹ̠/. The person most famous for possessing this shift is TV presenter Jonathan Ross, and that's probably because he's significantly older than most people with this shift, so he sticks out a bit more. I do think /ɹ̠/ will stick around as an allophone though, depending on the consonant preceding it. As for /w/… honestly, this will probably just stay as it is, since there are no viable candidates for what could replace it. - Yup, it’s MLE’s time to shine again - they’ve flattened most diphthongs already; e.g. from /fɛɪ̯s/ to /feːs/, from /maʊ̯θ/ to /maːf/, and, most uniquely, /pʰɹ̠ɑɪ̯s/ to /pʰʋɛːs/. As for Future General Southeastern British English, I’m most confident in the face and mouth vowels flattening, since a lot of people (myself included) already do the latter, so I pronounce the name of the city I live in /saːfɛnd͡z/. As for “price”, that will probably become closer to MLE, but still stay a diphthong, so /p͡ɸʋɛɪ̯s/. (Insert one of your memes of Marty McFly saying “I guess you guys aren't ready for that, yet. But your kids are gonna love it.” about /p͡ɸʋɛːs/ here) - I personally think an anti-clockwise shift is more likely in Britain, since MLE has already shifted /gʉʊ̯s/ to /gʏːs/, and /t͡ʃɹ̠ap/ to /t͡ʃɹ̠ɐp/, and I’ve noticed myself saying /d͡ʒɹ̠æs/ instead of the standard /d͡ʒɹ̠ɛs/ by mistake quite a lot. I can see /nɪː/ becoming /nɛː/, and /pʰɑːm/ becoming /p͡ɸʌːm/. - In Britain, we have our own second-person plural pronoun used in casual speech, and that’s “yous”. In Ireland, they also say “yous”, but also have “yizzer”, the plural form of “your” (from yousr). - Another MLE ting! So in MLE, sometimes they can use “man” as the first, second, and third-person singular pronoun variably (e.g. “man try say he’s better than me, tell my man shut up”). This… probably won’t have much influence on Future General Southeastern British English. What probably will influence FGSEBE though is MLE’s conjugation of “was” and “weren’t”, which is the same regardless of person, e.g. “they was gettin' bare rude”. Okay, so that’s it from your video, but there is one more MLE change I think will spread to other British dialects is the allophone wherein before any back vowel that is close-mid or more open, velar plosives are retracted to become uvular instead, e.g. /q͡χoʊ̯ʔ/ and /ɢoʊ̯ʔ/ will be the future pronunciations for “coat” and “goat”, respectively.
I love humans. The same brilliant individual who is fascinated by language, with wide expertise in 7 languages with a focus on the peculiarities of each of them, makes a centre-aligned bullet-point list and throws it to the wilderness, unbothered.
9:11 French does not have any stressed syllables on the word level, only on the ip and IP! So when one word is said isolated, the last syllable sounds stressed because of the boundary tones etc.
An observation I noticed in Italian (I'm specifically talking about the southern accents) is the palatization of the sounds k and g before j in something close to c and ɟ that might bring in minimal pairs like "cave" [kaːve] (empty) and "chiave" *[caːve] (key) or "Gaia" [gaːja] and "ghiaia" *[ɟaːja] (gravel). So yeah this would create a three way c/g dinstinction that does not exist in other Romance languages.
On Dutch, I feel like it's pretty common for many young people to use the "wrong" preposition in some specific cases through English influence which I notice a lot in people who went to international schools and in gen alpha. It is also extremely common to use English loanwords at random just because it popped into your head earlier and you know the other person will understand, or you use a less common Latin-derived cognate of an English word. Especially zoomers like me do this among themselves, but you notice it with some words in boomers too. One words I've noticed it with is "pickpocket" instead of the Dutch word "zakkenroller". I think it is likely English will have a similar impact on Dutch vocabulary in the next couple of centuries as (Norman) French had on English.
I'm a native speaker of (European) Spanish and holy hell, your pronunciation is good mate. I'd like to hear you pronouncing whole sentences and the like, I much prefer your Spanish voice to your English voice (not that the latter is bad, but your Spanish voice is cool).
in russian, I noticed that a lot of speakers drop intervocalic stops and (I think only voiced) fricatives, so: тебе /t'eb'e/ > те /t'e/ привет /pr'iv'et/ > прет /pr'et/ that seems to be happening more in more common words, and less in borrowed (like science terms) now, I'm not sure what will happen to vowels. possibly merging into diphtongs or long vowels, or the lost consonants may bleed into their quality (to prevent a lot of possible homophones from appearing), for example, the palatalization might front the vowels a bit or something: CVC'V > CVV' (' is palatalization here)
@@dasha_in_vibe >in russian, I noticed that a lot of speakers drop intervocalic stops and (I think only voiced) fricatives, so: I don't think, what it's a strict phonetic process. So, it's normal for regular speech to simplify obvious words. Like здравствуйте [ˈzdra.stvuj.tʲɪ]>['zdrastʲɪ]>['drastʲɪ]>[dr̩s'tʲi], человек [[t͡ɕɪɫɐˈvʲek]>[t͡ɕek] etc. But it doesn't mean, what all other word acts like this. In other hand, similar process could be before in the history of Russian language. There is a theory, what -ого ending become pronounced as -о[v~ʋ]о in result of consonant drop. [ogo]>[oɣo]>[oo]>[оvо] >possibly merging into diphtongs or long vowels I don't think, what it's possible. The Russian voсalism have a tendency to simplify. We can see it on the example of developing of reduction system. Unstressed vowels a,э,и become unrecognizable by pronunciation after soft consonants, all three is reduced to [ɪ]. Keep in mind, what only 4 vowels can be in that position. It's the really huge simplification and this happened during the last century. Russian stress system is still developing. And it's not become easier. A vowel reduction for o and a can be simplified. An a-ending for plural masculine nominative nouns becomes more widespread. In my opinion these vectors are more valid.
As an Andalusian (western dialect mostly, as in my final s becomes h and not an open vowel), I pretty much already talk with long vowels and geminated consonants tbh. I also want to point out that when I was telling a chinese speaker about the way andalusians talk and how we pronounce plurals, he could tell the difference between singular and plurals, not because he could hear the aspiration at the end but because the tone was different, so that could be fun to think about tone in Spanish.
There is always tone in the languages. The issue is if there is a semantic layer for those tones which are given my the grammar or not. You have tone in German, English etc. and it is used for example differentiating between nouns and verbs, which were otherwise identical or between two different verbal conjugations, between question or statement etc.
@@SchmulKrieger I know, I’m just saying it’s funny cause I thought of it as s aspiration, I never realised that I do speak plurals with a different tone and although I severely doubt this will happen, it would be funny to think of my dialect developing some tone stuff.
I can't hear tones or vowel length very well so I can understand Spanish either better than certain dialects of my own native Portuguese or as a full foreign intangible experience depending on how much people delete /s/ and /d/. Aspiration is fine.
13:35 jokes on you, I also do the "liaison" when the next word starts with h (for me "naar huis" and "na ruis" sound the same). (Also, I'm not sure if most Dutch people pronounce an h in "het" the article, as it actually derives from a weak form of "dat" that got reinterpreted as "het", but I think many people do sometimes.)
No, it does not. the h-forms of the pronouns were on their own, just right next to the h-less forms, and the d-forms are also on their own. For example you see this in Latin. hoc (het), id (et). het Büdsche in Hessian is this store, while et Büdsche is the store. The same in Old High German ›her‹ is this he, while ›er‹ is simply he. Same with hiz and iz (this it, it) in Old High German. But the h-forms have nothing to do with the d-forms. As we can see in Old Saxon and Old High German and even in Old English and so on.
Mmm you are not considering that Spanish is already considered a Macrolanguage such as Arabic, that means that we use a Standard form, so everything you have explained has already happened but the written language has not disappeared because we Spanish speakers are very respectful regarding orthography rules, which are more knowledgeable throughout the Spanish speakers, a totally different socio-economical situation from that it existed when the Romance languages started to appear.
My personal prediction about the Spanish phenomenon of -s to -h in coda: tonogenesis /-s/ coda syllables are pronounced with a lower pitched when pronounced as /-h/ with a breath of air and gets reinterpreted by future generation as a lower tone and the tone becomes phonemic. In turn, the words without -s coda, get reinterpreted as mid tone or high tone. Like the la/las minimal pair becomes la (high tone) and la (low tone). Spanish becomes a pitch accent language. Parallel IRL: Old Chinese to Middle Chinese tonogenesis. And I genuinely believe in this theory!
I'm Costa Rican (we speak Spanish), and I think the s -> h won't occur here likely (at least not in the Central Valley), because we actually tend to pronounce final s even stronger than the norm. In fact, our "s" and "r"s are quite characteristic on our dialect. Some words could become shorter, but not the way one could expect, like "entonces" ("then") becoming "tonces" or even "tonss", or "Gracias" ("thanks") turning into "Racias" (with tap r rather than trill r) and even "rass". I do see the intervocalic d dissapearing, but the final d changing into t. And I can't imagine the intervocalic b and g dissapearing here either. But again, this could be the case for Costa Rican Spanish. For other varieties of Spanish I actually can see your prediction turning right some decades or even one pair of centuries later.
Serbian has several fascinating changes happening: -several things derided as grammatical 'errors' have become completely entrenched in the language: 1) using 'bi' as the potential for all persons and pluralities, e.g. 'Mi bi da počnemo' instead of 'Mi bismo da počnemo' for 'We would (like to) begin.' 2) using the 'trebali smo' construct instead of the impersonal 'trebalo je' for 'I need' 3) using the infinitive with a preposition 'for' similar to 'for the taking', i.e. 'za poneti' (for the taking, i.e. to go), 'za plakati' (to cry about), 'za ne verovati' (unbelievable) and so on -weakening and dropping elsewhere of mid-word 'v', 'd' and 'b': 'dobar i vredan čovek' (a good and hard-working man) is slowly in speech becoming: 'doar i vrean čoek'. You could straight up say it like this and no one would notice. A more bold prediction would be that afterwards voiced pairs 't' and 'p' would weaken to 'd' and 'b' mid-sentence, i.e. 'Vetar duva' (The wind blows) would become 'Vedar dua'. -the slurring of the future tense, similar to 'going to' becoming 'gonna': 'ću da', 'ćeš da', 'će da', 'ćemo da', 'ćete da', 'će da' becoming 'ćua, ćea, ćea, ćeoa, ćea, ćea.' E.g. 'Ja ću da radim' (I will work) becoming 'Ja ćua rajim.' -a further simplification of the tense system, the gradual loss of Second Future used to describe events that are conditions for a future event happening, e.g. 'Kad budem stigao, počnite.' (When I arrive, begin.), will be replaced by the present 'Kad stignem, počnite'. -The perfect gradually might be used in general even for future events that are about to happen. E.g. many people nowadays say 'Otišao sam', i.e. 'I have gone!', when they're just about to leave, as in 'Consider me gone!' Might even bleed into a form of Future perfect that the language currently doesn't have.
As for Spanish, those shifts have been common in Caribbean and Andalusian accents for several years, even a few centuries, maybe. From my perspective, that pronunciation is still frowned upon in other regions, but acknowledging the current popularity of Caribbean music, new generations might embrace it quickly... It'll be interesting listening to my grand-children speaking Spanish with a Puerto Rican accent.
From how I speak and what I hear the loss of א ה ע has already happened and became long vowels in casual speech (I can’t even pronounce ע). Edit: but ya, all of your predictions for Hebrew I completely agree with (and I wouldn’t even think twice if I heard someone speaking with them today). Though personally I really doubt anyone would interpret that as being a pitch accent, rather than just 2 vowels in a row, with either the first or second being stressed.
About your Hebrew : 1)first part main problem is we still have the writing system and we probably won’t move from it too much so even if we will completely lose the sounds of אהע and all become a we would still pronounce them just flatter. 2) kinda similar to first point we would still know how stuff should be pronounced though that I can see happen though probably not to extreme that you described and most likely be something Hebrew speaker would end up doing when they speak really fast (like the word for school is beit sefer and some times when talking fast it commonly end as bestefer ) but would still know it is wrong in Hebrew to pronounce it that way. 3) technically we do have way to write letters that aren’t in Hebrew by adding ‘ to them so the letter for the g sounds ג become ג׳ to the j sounds for example , so if I had to guess the writing would be ר׳ for R like sound you mentioned, ח׳ to the ח like sounds you mentioned and ז׳ already exist so i don’t know what you are talking about
Interestingly, in Korean, the word-initial clusters "sp", "st", and "sk" developed into the faucalized "emphatic" plosives "pp", "tt", and "kk", which to my knowledge don't exist in other languages. For instance, Middle Korean ᄯᅥᆨ〮 (sték) became Modern Korean 떡 (tteok). Intriguingly, this itself may be part of an emerging language shift itself in Korean, involving plosive quality distinctions (p, pp, b) transforming into tonal distinctions (p and pp would be high, b would be low), a similar pattern to what's happened with Chinese and Punjabi.
That first thing on Spanish is indeed a very well documented phenomena for Caribbean Spanish, I can speak for Dominican Spanish. In lower classes though the [s] before a vowel in a different syllable is not aspirated. So in your example, "Los Arboles" is more commonly "Lo_s-Arbole".
this is such a cool exercise. honestly I can't really even begin to think about how my language, Italian, could evolve in regards to its grammar or phonology at all. vocabulary-wise that's already a bit easier.
The depharyngealization of the emphatic consonants and phonemic split of /a/ for Arabic had already happened in Maltese, a descendant of the Siculo-Arabic dialects spoken a millenium ago. The emphatic consonants would prevent /a/ from usually raising into a high vowel such as ⟨e⟩ or ⟨i⟩ and lonɡ /aː/ into ⟨ie⟩, and even as far as lowering short /i/ and /u/ into ⟨a⟩. As the vowels slowly drifted away from each other, the emphatics were now free to merge with their non-emphatic counterparts. I imagined this happened after Malta had been split off from the Arabic world, in which it was free to evolve on it's own really quickly without a conservative force acting on it.
Palatalization of ti di ty ty in French already exists: in Quebec it's fully tsi dzi tsy dzy (also affected by j ɥ). It also already has regressive tense/lax vowel harmony but mostly in high vowels [i y u] vs [ɪ ʏ ʊ] (which is allophonic - only lax in closed syllables: "Pyrite" /piʁit/ -> [pɪʁɪt], "Pilule" /pilyl/ -> [pilʏl] or [pɪlʏl] or [pʏlʏl].
native hebrew speaker here. i always thought that we'd end up developing contrasting vowel length due to alef ayin and he being elided but never thought of tones evolving from it! love your take on that. [ke̞ˈ(ʔ)e̞v] specifically is oxytone though (it's a rare template), so according to your theory it would become [kě̞ːv]. also, i think it's perfectly plausible for only long vowels to possess tone. i think prosody might also play a part in tone development. take the modern form for the feminine imperative form of the verb (to bring), . normally, it would develop into [täˈvîː]. however, if that word is said suggestively, as a question, it could be pronounced [tävǐː]. regarding the voicing assimilation - i don't think tsadi and khet/khaf could devoice their following consonants. in fact, i do hear people a fully voiced [ʒ] in words like [χe̞ʒˈbo̞n] instead of saying /χeʃˈbon/. in my understanding, khet/khaf and tsadi are simply immune to the shift, likely due to the fact you pointed out in the video. another thing i think we will eventually develop is grammatical case with definiteness distinction. the object marker, /et/, frequently merges with the definite article, /(h)a/, to form /ta/. this, combined with the fact that several prepositions are already written as prefixes since byblical hebrew, can result in a nice case system based on prefixes.
As a Hebrew speaker I completely agree with you on the voicing assimilation, but I see the coalescence of vowels going a different way: 1. when the first vowel is stressed - a long vowel, like you said /'ta.am/ > /taːm/ 2. but when the second vowel is stressed, I see the first becoming a shwa and dropping, leaving a short vowel - /ta'am/ > /tə'am/ > /tam/. this is based on the fact that word initial /e/ in hebrew is pretty weak (shva nakh), and cases like /ʃe.u'it/ > /ʃuˈit/ for some people. so the first vowel weakens to schwa (already does in many cases), gets reanalyzed as a weak /e/, and gets dropped entirely. It also benefits from morphological analogy, because one major source of /Ca'aC/ is paal verbs, and there is already precedence for CaC verbs, like רץ, בא, so I think they will get reanalyzed as ones.
Hey from what I've heard, the Ottoman Turkish or Lisan - i - Osmani used a modified version of the Arabic script . But as you know that the turkic languages have too many vowels to be represented by Diacritics and Mater Lectionis (و for ü / ɯ ö etc) so they used the emphatic consonants when they had to represent the back vowels (or atleast a different set of consonants). So if I aint wrong it's something like this: /tu/ could be written with the letter ط and /ty/ could be written with ت or something on those lines. Note that I could be wrong in pointing out the exact logic but it's fascinating how Arabic might one day use different sets of consonants based on the quality of vowel it precedes.
Regarding spanish, just like you said for the lo/loh phenomenom, gemination is already extremly common in Andalusia, Eastern in particular, even among the elderly so no recent change by any means. Regarding the result of vowels in contact due to elision, it already happens very often in "-ada" and if anything it leads to a short "-á" rather than a long sound.
Nice video. I've noticed some stuff in my (and some local friends) particular French (central Auvergne): Affrication is much more prominent with voiceless stops than voiced ones - but contrary to Québec French is does tend to be post-alveolar (I basically pronounce "tu" /tʃy/, but in casual, relaxed speech it even becomes something like /tɸ/? with the vowel basically completely devoiced) The phenomenon of devoicing the /i, y, u, e, ɛ/ at the end of words into some kind of "ç" (eg /mɛʁˈsi̥ç/ merci) in Parisian French is well known but I feel like here /y, u, ø/ tend to become more like a bilabialized /yɸ/ (with as said before, y possibly disappearing entirely), and /a, ɛ/ sound more like /ah, ɛh/. Nasal vowels are completely unaffected. I kinda feel like the vowel harmonization is already settled here? I can't actually think of times where I contrast e, ɛ within a single word tbh. I don't know how representative it is, but I do find that friends from other regions pronounce things differently.
Ight this is a big project, but it would be sick if you took Latin American Spanish and made a full video predicting the future languages that would most likely form from it. Take the largest and or distinct accents
Something I'd like to add about my native Puerto Rican spanish is that the rolled r is sometimes pronounced as ghhh (idk the phonetic spelling/sound description) mostly by people who can't or won't roll their r's. I've seen it spreading more and similarly sometimes the single r sound is changed more to an r (or sometimes even an l depending on the position of the letter) you'd find in english. This might be a PR or spanglish exclusive though since english slang is predominant in both.
It's probabably the voiced or the unvoiced uvular fricative , according to Wikipedia- I find this perception as a g or h so interesting as a German, because I really struggle to distinguish that sound from the alveolar tap😅
2:29 normaly U mute the first sylabe, I said "toy ready" not "etoy ready" or "cucha" unitl "escucha" or "ecucha" so, probably in my accent (the uruguayan) we said "el pejo" and not "el epejo" but in some cases we can omit the sylabs and phonems in the middle of the word like "neito" until "necesito", in some cases we omit 2 sylabes, we said "cleta" and not "bicicleta" or "bici"
consonant gemination does happen in some carribean spanish speakers in clusters of {l,r}[+obstruent -voiced], for example "alto" /alto: ['at:o] and arte /arte/ ['at:e] also, vowel harmony. as a result of la aspiración, some carribean spanish speakers regressively change the quality of vowels before coda [h] (/a/ => [æ], /e/ => [ε], /o/ => [ɔ]) examples: estar [εh'tal] estás [εh'tæ] está [εh'tal] some dialects with la aspiración already drop coda [h l r] entirely, making this not only possible, but likely example sentences to pull it together: «las mujeres altas estaban a casa» [læ mu'çεɾεh 'æt:æh ε'ta:ŋ a 'casa] «vamos a ir a la ciudad» ['β̞æmɔh a il a la sju'ð̞a] «no quiero ser secretario» [no 'kjeɾo se sekɾe'taɾjo] irl i pretty much speak like this (unironically and not to influence the future, it just fits best in my mouth) but coda /r/ merged with /l/ and i almost never drop coda [h] or word final [l]
I remember a while ago hearing a Spanish speaker talking about how he turns not just /s/ into [h], But also /f/ and /x/ in many positions, Making the starts of a 3-way merger.
Great video! The claim at 1:21 that some Latin American dialects will only shift coda [s] to [h] when it is spelled with an S is very surprising to me, because it implies that there is a phonemic distinction between /s/ and /θ/ in these dialects (even if the latter never surfaces as a [θ]). Do you know what dialects these are and do you have a source for this?
german (at least here in austria) is losing the suffix for accusative and especially dative cases (in the rare case where word has one). most young people are doing it (both variants sound fine to my ears) and it drives the old people mad. normally it's (nom.) der Student (dat.) dem Studenten ( = the student). young people often say "Ich gebe dem Student einen Kuchen" (i give a cake to the student) and not "Ich gebe dem Studenten einen Kuchen". even the speakers on the news sometimes do it already.
I often wonder if the ongoing loss of the N-declension is routed in the dificulty of distinguishing the number of the noun in many cases ("Ich werfe den Bären den Löwen zum Fraß vor" - is it one bear being eaten by many lions, or many bears eating one lion?). During the shift from Middle High German to Early Modern German, many nouns where moved to different declension classes to more clearly distinguish singular from plural, leading for example to the moving of feminine nouns like zunge( in MHG declined in the singular: diu zunge, der zungen, der zungen, die zungen; and in the plural: die zungen, der zungen , den zungen , die zungen). Maybe a similiar aversion is still active in current German?
@@danielwalter1467 at least over here there's no way you could confuse the two in colloquial speech. it's "i wirf in bären de löwen zum fraß vor" if it's one bear eaten by lions and "i wirf de bären in löwen zum fraß vor" if it's one lion eaten by bears. i germany i suppose it's similar but with differnt articles (they probably use "nen" for singular which wouldn't work for plural).
I speak portuguese, and I've noticed that this phenomenon of turning S into h is also happening in Brazilian portuguese, specially in my accent, but also in others to lesser extent. In My accent, it is not only S, but also V, Z, and J (which has the same sound as the S in vision). For example, "Hendo", "Caha" and "Há" , instead of "vendo", "casa" (this S has a Z sound) and "Já"
You should have probably mentioned that it's only Ceará, Rio Grande do Norte and surrounding areas that have those features, and they have had those for generations, but it did not spread. Whereas the pronunciation of /ˈmesmu/ as [ˈmeɦmʊ], [ˈmemˠʷˑ], [ˈmeɘ̯xmʊ], [ˈmeɦmˠʷ], [ˈmehm̥ˠʷ], etc. did spread in the mid-20th century.
To people who are not aware, Brazil had a huge internal migration of people from that area to the Amazon, Rio de Janeiro, São Paulo, Brasília, etc. but also s > h shift was already a strong areal feature of Brazil that can be witnessed in Pirahã and countless Tupian languages, and I have read an article on portunhol do pampa years ago saying that some people already spoke like that along the Brazil-Uruguay border in the 20th century too, long before TV influenced their dialect (plus, cariocas and paulistanos don't speak like that on TV even though we do irl). Therefore, it's a generic local feature, nevertheless one that's not favored in terms of prestige outside of where it's a marker of the local dialect, basically Ceará, Rio Grande do Norte, Paraíba and Rio de Janeiro [the (two?) latter for codas only], maybe other places. People from northern Brazil migrating to Rio also have that feature but people from Belém and Manaus avoid talking like that while giving interviews.
In (Randstad) Dutch, I know a handful of people who I feel like pronounce their tapped R's a little funny, where it seems to me almost between a tapped and a retroflex R, but I cannot put my finger on the exact sound. I have a professor who I sometimes seem to hear use a retroflex word-initial R which is very strange to me. Also with adjectives that get an extra -e after the final -r, it often sounds to me he misspeaks and accidentally uses a retroflex r, but then corrects by following it by a tap and the e or something like that. And with some people I can never tell whether they say "sorry" with a Dutch or English accent (it doesn't help that it is often said very quickly and mumbly). These same people always end their words with a retroflex r regardless of a vowel in the next word, unlike me. Could this maybe be the beginnings of a shift to just a retroflex r like English had? Or am I just crazy and hearing things?
As a Hebrew speaker I agree about everything except: 1. I don't think [ja'ad] will become a rising tone I think it will just stay like that for a long time and maybe eventually become [jǝ'ad] or even [jad] 2. Ayin and Hey are already pronounced the same as Alef (a glottal stop) for almost all young speakers and this glottal stop is already usually dropped (except in very careful speech like in the radio or when reading an old poem) so it's not really a prediction it already happened 3. Regressive voicing assimilation is already very popular for young speakers and (at least for me) when /ts/, /š/ and /χ/ become voiced they become/dz/, /ž/ and uvular fricative /r/ (I don't have IPA) and /dz/ and fricative /r/ are just heard as allophones of /ts/ and /χ/ (because Resh is pronounced as an approximant like you mentioned) I never heard the reverse assimilation you mentioned 4. /ž/ does exist in Hebrew but only in loanwords (except as I mentioned earlier as an allophone of /š/ when it gets assimilated to voiced consonants) My predictions are: 1. Numbers will lose their gender distinctions (already happened for most speakers) 2. The accusative + definite article -את ה (et ha) will become -'ת (ta) (also already happened for most speakers) 3. A lot of new loanwords from English will replace both native words and older loanwords from Arabic and Yiddish ('hi' instead of 'shalom' and 'ahlan' for example) 4. The diminutive suffix '-ush' will become the normal diminutive instead of being only used by teenage girls and will replace the native Hebrew suffixes '-i' and '-on' and the Yiddish/Slavic suffix '-chik'
#2 is so true, to the point where in texting/online people have reanalyzed it as a prefix like ה or ב. Also in younger speakers the first person singular pronoun שלי sheli often loses its first vowel to become shli and is sometimes also reanalyzed as a suffix. This is hilarious becuase שלי sheli was a replacement/evolution from the old/classical hebrew possessive suffix י- eg. Biblical בתי biti vs הבת שלי habat sheli for my daughter (the י- suffix still exists but it's rarer and more formal) in younger speakers it's often אבתשלי []abatshli. Maybe they'll eventually drop the shl too and then we'll come full circle back to the י- suffix lol.
I have read that French is more and more moving to a polysynthetic structure, as the smaller grammatical words are more and more in speech fusing and being pronounced as one word with nouns and verbs they modify. If people begin thinking about them as affixes French could become one of the most inflectional languages of Europe.
As a native speaker of Puerto Rican Spanish, I pronounce /s/ when at the end of a word before a vowel-initial word as [ʔ], so for me 'los arboles' is something like [loˈʔalβole(h)]. How do you think that could evolve?
For Thai, some people in urban area pronounce [x] as allophone of /kʰ/ and mix it with [kʰ] make phonetic status of /kʰ/ in urban area are [kʰ~x] while in rural area I never heard [x] at all. (note: Thai contrast aspiration such as /k/ vs /kʰ/.)
Two questions about this: would you say that they pronounce it sometimes as an affricate [kx]? And is there maybe also a pronounciation of /pʰ/ as [f] or [pf] and of /tʰ/ as [ts] or [s]? Asking as a German😅
@@danielwalter1467 Yes, I forgot about affricate allophone but that is rarer than posive or fricative but correct phonetic value lf that is [kxʰ] because [kx] will be percieved by listener as /k/ phonemes. (note: actually [ts] and [tʃ] in ipa standard sound record is aspirated instead of unaspirated I can confirm this since Thai contrast /tʃ~tɕ/ vs /tʃʰ~tɕʰ/) For second question, no way that gonna happend soon since Thai can't distinguish [pfʰ] vs [pf] vs [f] (/f/ phoneme) and [tsʰ] vs [ts] vs [s] (/s/ phoneme).
Soy de Maracaibo, Venezuela, con la enorme cantidad de gente que se fue, puedo asegurar que el acento de las personas ha cambiado un poco y se acerca mas a lo visto en este video, ya que generalmente socislizamos mas con personas mayores e indigenas que les cuesta hablar el castellano, ya sea por edad o ambiente, las S se estan eliminando o se pronuncian como una 'h', las X se pronuncian igual que las S 'h' y las R ya en algunos casos son una R similar al portugués, o bueno, una R rotica muy débil, como dato adicional, usamos el voseo reverencial, aunque de manera informal, como un español del medio evo
As a Dutch speaker, I don't expect the liaison thing to happen. In common speech in the most 'standard' dialects there is no n, even before a vowel. Also note that French was able to lose its plural marker as the number could still reliably be determined from the article's pronunciation. A lack of this would probably have Dutch keep its schwa. A different note is that schwa is (in modern interpretations) phonemic as the unstressed counterpart of 'u' as in 'hut', just like the French schwa.
Depends. Because some dialects of Dutch pronounce the n in the infinitives. But they often drop the e between the consonants. like preparern, instead of preparere for prepareren.
Seeing that Dutch movement to French makes me wonder, are these things part of some common pattern or broader linguistic "style", or are they just a few unrelated changes that just happen to be shared with contemporary French?
Dropping h for example is also seen in Elfdalian in an Old Norse dialect still spoken there, located in Sweden. This isn't unusual. It also happened in Greek even in many Old Greek dialects already.
Well ur talking about American Spanish dialects not Castilian where s became þ(th) , to a degree in the American varieties some is becoming like h or silent before consinents at the beginning and after e at the end of a word but not as much ‘as’ or ‘os’ but es is becoming eth or eh, and even is is becoming i or ih. It depends on the vowel. And u already dropped ‘us’ at the end but not in the middle of words like gusta
As with my native language brazilian Portuguese, I'd say that this is definitely happening/going to happen generally in Brazil tʃi -> tʃ(ʲ) -> ʃ(ʲ) -> ʃ (as well as it's voiced counterpart), and u -> ʷ -> (maybe) ø, after a consonant at the end of a word is also happening, like in faço, fasu -> fasʷ.
Yeah, Brazilian Portuguese does actually have almost as much vowel reduction in the last syllable as European Portuguese when we're not trying to speak very loud, and yeah, /i/ becomes [ɪ̥] or [ʲ] while /u/ can be [ʊ̥], [ʷɪ̥̈], [ᵝɪ̥̈], [ˠʷɪ̥̈], [ˠᵝɪ̥̈], [ˠʷ], [ˠᵝ], [ˠ], [ʷ], [ᵝ] or just plain deletion. But as for the /ti/ and /di/, as I said in another comment, I think you're hearing a weakly-articulated [tɕ] and [d̥ʑ̊], they're more palatalized and often devoiced but still an affricate. Verdade, *verdache (deleting the -e like someone from Portugal would) and *verdás (removing the yod *ajɕ) would NOT rhyme for me and I also have that weakening, [d̥ʑ̊], [ʃ] and [ɕ] respectively (yes, we theoretically could contrast [ʃ] and [ɕ] in Portugal and in Rio, guanache and *guanás also sound very different). A good way to train yourself to notice the difference is pretend to be a carioca and say dentes. [ˈdẽ̞ɘ̯̃.tɕɕ̩] vs [ˈdẽ̞ɘ̯̃.tʃɕ̩], the first sounds like it could be dente but just saying dentttte, the second definitely sounds like dentes. The first dentes you could try weakly articulating for as far as you want but it still won't sound like denxes or denxe. Segura aí que de chiado eu entendo 😂
About that long list of secondary articulations left by phantom vowels, I'd like to add [ˈɪ̃ɪ̠̯̃pʰʏ̥] ímpio, and quite frankly the vowel can be quite fricated, almost like [ˈɪ̃ɪ̠̯̃pɸ͡ç̩]. Carinho OTOH can be [kʰɐˈɾ̰ɪ̃ʏ̯̃]. The -im which people use for -inho (when e.g. doing eye dialect for mineiro and caipira speech) in most dialects sounds nothing like words that get -im by default, carmim for me would be [käɦᵊˈmɪ̃ɰ̟̃], the very opposite, they end like a more velar and unrounded version whole in -inho it turns into a thoroughly palatal diphthong but finishing with rounded or compressed off-glide.
Another one: equilíbrio [ek̟ʲᵊˈl̰ʲibɾᶣᵊ], two syllables. 🥴 Maybe there's something wrong with my mouth though because this is coming out as [ek̟ʲʰç̩ˈɬ̠ibɾʲʊ̥̈] or [ek̟ʲʰç̩ɬ̠ˈl̠ibɾʲʊ̥̈] right now. Maybe it's because I just brushed my teeth?
@@AnarchoPinkoEuroBr Yeah, although my accent is closer to a paulistano one than a carioca, I get it 💯. There's also the one in fatiando /faʲʃʲandʷ/ and also the new formation of the final l, that happens in Portugal, but now it's also happening in Brazil in bala /baɫᵊ/ or pelo /peᵊɫʷ. I almost forgot about the u in chupar, for example /ʃʷpa/, as in "vai chupar isso?" /vaj ʃʷpa isʷ/.
@@TheRealGhebs I meant to say that this fatiando is definitely [fɐtɕɪ̥ˈɜn̪ˠᵝ], it's still an affricate
3 місяці тому+1
I wonder if my Canadian French will become a different language, the placement of our vowels already are centered while those of Parisian French are foward. We also have lots of abreviations, vowel lenghtenings, diphtongaisons, we pronounce the Ts and Ds with a z or s when followed by i and [ʏ] (Dzictature instead of dictature, tsire instead of tire, dzune instead of dune). We also like to remove pronouns when between the noun and most prepositions, then lenghten the vowels of the prepositions (''Dans la maison'' to '' Dɑɑ̃n' maison,''. Also the ''Ai'' in maison is pronounced with the French nasal in, like ''Minzon'')
I think that's because due to English language contact. Also the diphthong /ai/ not /e/ pronounced sounds English to me. The same with dz and ts. Especially in dzune which reminded me dune (dyoon) in proper English. Because there is no i sound actually in dune in the French word. So it must be English influence. And a lot more things.
3 місяці тому
@@SchmulKrieger The English language most probably affected it, but to what extent, we do use English words and can pronounce them without problem, so all sounds the English language has we have them, excluding the þ and ð, we are bad at pronouncing those. We spoke Middle French 100 years after it was extinct in France and spoke the French of the king instead of the bourgeoisie, so our French branched out before the British conquest. We also had a massive Irish migration. I think our pronounciation of dzüne is caused by our centered placement, dz is simply easier for us to pronounce with the i (ee) and ü, both foward vowels. We don't put a y in front of u like in English, the English u is "yoo". "Pyure", "yutilize", "dyoone", "myusic".
Concerning Arabic, pharyngealised consontants ص /sˤ/, ط /tˤ/ and ض /dˤ/ (though this pronunciation of the last one is not the classical one) can be found in all dialects as far as I know -except for Maltese which depharynsealise them-. Concerning ظ /ðˤ/, some dialects have preserved this pronunciation, others have just turned it into /zˤ/ or /dˤ/ (sometimes both of them exist in the same dialect for different words). At the end, I am not sure that the loss of pharangealisation is going to happen in the future, for these pharangealised consonants are being articulated without a problem (almost in all dialects) and they are even inserted in recently borrowed words instead of their non-pharangelised counterparts (for example Tarzan has become طَرَزَان /tˤarazaːn/). Hopefully this was hopeful albeit being a little bit superficial.
the gemination thing already happens in Venezuelan Spanish a lot (that's the dialect I speak) Argentinian Spanish has the opposite and the vowel lengthens instead (VhC > V:C) but there's still some level of aspiration in both cases in Venezuelan Spanish I often notice the aspiration changes to the other end of the consonant if it's a stop (espejo [eˈpːʰeho]) interestingly in some Andalucian dialects the same thing happens but the consonant is short (espejo [eˈpʰeho]), tho it's most noticeable with /t/ the thing about intervocalic B D G disappearing and leaving behind a long vowel or diphthong, also already happens in Venezuelan and Chilean Spanish in Venezuela the D disappears almost always, G disappears quite often but mostly next to /a/, and B disappears relatively frequently, and B and G often leave behind vowel colouring at least for me also the thing you said about lavabo, the intervocalic fricatives mostly never disappear *before* a stressed vowel in Venezuelan Spanish, the loss only really happens *after* a stressed vowel another thing where I could think long vowels could appear (and already kinda do in Venezuela) is in sequences of a vowel followed by B D G followed by R or L (for example negro [neɣɾo] > [ˈneˠːɾo], with vowel colouring)
When I was younger I would pronounce agua as aua and igual as iual. And currently i barely pronounce ada and ado. I pronounce candado as candao and nada as naà but the d isn't completely gone its just, very light?
The prediction for Spanish could be accurate for Caribbean dialects, but not for Mexican Spanish. Mexican Spanish is evolving in the opposite direction and the consonants are becoming more pronounced and the vowels are becoming weaker. For example: The word “explicar” (to explain) In most dialects is /ehplikar/ But in Mexican Spanish is /eksplikar/ with a clear X sound. This pronunciation is fixed due to hyper-correction and now words that should be pronounced with a simple S sound like “esplendor” (splendor) are being mispronounced as /eksplendor/. Also, the vowels are becoming weaker, as phrases like “estoy aquí” (I’m here) are being pronounced like /stoi a’ki/, dropping the E at the beginning of the sentence
My prediction about German is that it'll be heavily influenced by English. Younger people often already literally just put English words between German ones and a lot of slang is heavily based on English.
I’m Puerto Rican. I made a future Spanish conlang (based off my regional Puerto Rican dialect and it basically becomes worse than French somehow. Lenguaje /lengwahe/ becomes lema /lẽ/, which comes from an excessive simplification and just cutting out more than half its content. “Puertorriqueño” becomes Peloyçema /pelojtʃẽ/. It’s kinda insane.
You may be thinking of a prediction for Spanish (my experience) but it's already happening, and into the red boxes. I can hear it, and it is what confuses me. I got taught the traditional boxes, let's say, but at parties, and on the street, it's all red box stuff. Lima, Perú.
6:24 About Hebrew, my sister studied linguistics, and she told me I, as well as many others, do pronounce ש as ʒ in לשבור, even though we don't have ʒ in the language. Also 5:02 I've never heard anyone say יַעָד and רַעָש. We use ייעֶד /ji'ed/ for 'he designated', and for 'he made noise' רעש feels archaic (though I don't remember ever seeing it), we say הרעיש. Thinking about it, both verbs we switch buildings (not sure what's the English for בנייני לשון lol), maybe it's actually done to avoid this aעa
Actually,romanian neuters becoming feminine isn't that far fetched,namely because it already happened once in the history of the language,let's take the latin word ostium,it was neuter in latin,so it's plural was ostia,when latin became proto romanian,like it the other varietaties of vulgar romance,the nominative neuter and the masculine accusative merged because they shared a ,,-um" ending,giving a word that was most likely something like *ustiu,with the plural of *ustia,the plural got reanalysed as the singular,and gave ușă,which is feminine,where as it's italian cognate,,uscio" is masculine,so it could be that the singular forms of nouns that pluralize to -e like orașe,avioane,etc. would change to orașă,avioană,etc.,though the -uri neuters are kinda unlikely to go through the same proscess
Creo que es difícil decir que los idiomas vayan a cambiar mucho considerando que la educación masiva los ha fosilizado por así decirlo. Ahora todo el mundo sabe leer y sabe que existe una forma "correcta" de hablar y las desviaciones de eso se consideran algo malo. Antes los idiomas mutaban porque eran prácticamente todos orales y no había forma de estandarizarlos, los distintos grupos de hablantes se aislaban unos de otros y así surgían nuevos idiomas. Ahora existen escuelas, diccionarios, academias de lengua, medios de comunicación masivos, etc., que refuerzan una forma "correcta" estándar. Hablando propiamente del español lo que podría pasar es que ocurra como en el árabe donde existe una forma estándar escrita de prestigio y luego variedad de dialectos hablados no mutuamente inteligibles según el lugar y la clase social.
3:30 I notice that happening in my English pretty often where ever L is, if it wasn't a front consonant before it. I do hear Spanish very ofte in flea markets, but I can tell they don't notice that when trading, but when I try to speak and using Spanish, the L has a bad tendency to contaminate like my English. My Spanish isn't good, but able to make trading good enough. If I read Spanish, it's easy. Though I must avoid light l becoming a tapped r.
Let's summarize:
- Spanish and Dutch start becoming French Lite
- French will sound like Portuguese with a lite version of Polish palatalization and German Rs
- Hebrew develops pitch accent
- Arabic doubles its vowel inventory
- Amharic develops a brand new noun class system
- Romanian develops a virile/non-virile distinction in 1000 years
What I don't get is, because Arabic has vowel length, where is the standardised variety has it 5 vowel sounds? They have three of which every can be lengthened.
Furthering frenchization of Spanish, I see some dialect going full liaison, like, normal [s] sound when a final s links to an initial vowel, and full deletion otherwise.
Also, I know of some dialects that have this schwaization of final vowels. Very French!
Please say Brazilian Portuguese, inb4 Portuguese people start saying they speak the original one and therefore we shouldn't be generalized etc. etc. (they do not in fact speak "the original one")
@@salmanman2699It is not a "Frenchification" of the language, but rather an Andalusianism. It is something characteristic of the southern dialects of Spain, which were the most widespread in the Spanish empire.
@@Mazorca-qq3li As someone from latin america, I really hate Andaluisan Spanish and how it's praised here by many. I seriously think it's such an overrated accent. The only feature about Andalusian Spanish I have is the aspiration of s in final position or at the end of syllable.
That palatalization has largely occurred in Acadian French (which was how "Acadien" became "Cajun" over the two centuries)
bruh why am I just finding out those two words are related, god damn
The term "Cajun" is American English. Acadian. A Cadian. Cajun.
Native French speaker here (from Paris western suburbs).
1) I agree with this, but I hear a lot of people pronouncing /ʁ/ as [ɰ] or [ʕ] in between vowels. I think the phoneme /ʁ/ will evolve into something like [ʁ̞] after a voiced stop, [χ] after a voiceless stop and [ɰ]/[ʕ] in other positions. I’ve also heard some people skipping the voiceless stop when it’s between a vowel and [χ] (e.g. « après » pronounced [aχɛ] instead of [apχɛ]).
I’ve also thought about R after a vowel not being pronounced, resulting in a long vowel, unless there’s a vowel after, like in British English (e.g. « parler » pronounced [paːle] instead of [paʁle]).
2) In fact, this shift has already occurred in Southern French and suburban/youth speech, but /t/ and /d/ are pronounced [t͡ʃ ] and [d͡ʒ] before /i/ and /y/. This is not an influence from Congolese French but a natural phenomenon (think about Québécois or Brazilian Portuguese).
I’ve even heard once someone affricating the /t/ before /u/, so maybe it will be more generalized?
3) Yeah this shift is happening, not only with /e/~/ɛ/ but also with /ø/~/œ/ and /o/~/ɔ/. Some people can’t hear the difference between those pairs (especially in the South of France).
Basically, there will only be 3 levels of vowel height (close, close-mid and open) instead of 4 (the open-mid is disappearing) in the phonological system.
Notice that all these shifts are particularly true for suburban French but not for the other varieties. As all regional accents are slowly dying out due to the strength of prescriptivism in France, I think that in the future, the accents will vary more from socioeconomic backgrounds rather than regional backgrounds, with all these shifts being the accent from lower class and the current standard accent being the upper class accent.
Besides, it’s funny to see that the shifts from Future Spanish all happened during the shift from Old to Modern French haha
Btw if you can speak French there’s this video talking about the future shifts in French : ua-cam.com/video/WsSWRuxAUdY/v-deo.htmlsi=MGUonDRzyGjHD0kA
Dude, I thought I was alone by pronouncing après as /aχːɛ/, though I tend to geminated the fricative. It's fun to know that a new phoneme is being added to the language. I also tend to observe that in Paris the /ʁ/ tends to be devoiced also in word final position - terre [tɛːχ], while it becomes an approximant in other positions like you said ([ʁ̝] or [ɰ]). I think there's a general tendency to drop intervocallic non-sibilant voiced fricatives, with an intermediate approximant phase :
ça va [sa.va] → [sa.ʋa] → [sa.a]
chéri [ʃe.ʁi] → [ʃe.ʁ̝i] → [ʃe.i]
@@cheune6677That video of Linguisticae is a goldmine! I also completely agree about the possibility of long vowels reemerging, but I realised just recently that the lengthening isn't only restricted to coda r, compare "con" and "conte". It's actually pretty complex and depends on the type of vowels, the english article on wikipedia about french phonology explains it pretty well. I also think that the unaspirated final vowels will spread from the high vowels to the low and back ones , with an epenthetic [h]instead of an /ç/ being added at the end. Thinks of people saying "je veux ça" [j ͜ vø sḁhː] or "beaucoup" [bo.ku̥h]
@@thibistharkuk2929 Haha that's the power of knowing linguistics, I pay more attention to how people speak :D
But yeah I agree with all the things you said, there will eventually be a new phoneme /χ/ in French, with a distinction between /χ/ and /ʁ/ similar to /r/ and /rr/ in Spanish and Portuguese.
@@thibistharkuk2929 About the unaspirated final vowels : for the back vowels I hear [ɸ] rather than [h] but that's true. However I think this phenomenon is more typical of the Parisian/upper class accent, as it seems to be more accepted. I often hear it in the traditional medias but in everyday life I only hear it with Parisians (I also do it though, idk why lol).
A trend I've noticed with Portuguese (my native language) is that people are starting to pronounce words like "Nós" /ˈnɔs/ as /ˈnɔjs/ or /ˈnɔis/. In my dialect (Southern Brazil) it's not very common, most people (including me) pronounce it as /ˈnɔs/, but recently I've seen more and more people saying /ˈnɔjs/ or /ˈnɔis/, which is very interesting cuz this has always been really frowned upon in the region I was born in, it has always been considered a thing that only uneducated lower class people do, but now it's a big trend.
Its a feature of southeastern dialects, its getting more popular because interregional communication and stuff like youtube and tiktok made it easier for traits of other varieties, specially ones already regarded as standard/prestige to spread.
My own sister (we are from RS) started adopting traits from northeastern and paraense dialects lol, even as the general pronunciation remains the same.
@@jamm6_514 That's very interesting. I've been living in Norway for 12 years and recently I visited the city I was born in (Caxias do Sul) and noticed that a lot of people are pronouncing these words that way, way more than I remember from when I was a child. I'd say a similar thing is happening in Norwegian where common dialects in media are influencing other dialects.
And what’s even crazier is that in informal settings, at least in my accent (Caipira), people pronounce it like /'nɔj/ when speaking fast. I know I and the people around me do it all the time!
@@猫が好きすぎて猫背に Yes same! I'm not Caipira but usually pronounce it like that , and pronouncing the s when talking slowly feels a bit weird 😭.
It's also common to switch the "s" for a r sound, and that can obviously be dropped too since it's common to drop final Rs.
Nós brah
Please somebody get this pun
7:55 this palatalization can be heard in France but I don't know if it comes from Congolese French, I mostly associate it with some low-class or southern accents.
Fun fact: a few months ago some newspaper published articles about this phenomenon and then idiots all over social media thought that "affrication" had something to do with Africa (or maybe they didn't really believe it but they thought they were very funny, and according to them anyway any change in French is bad and must come from immigrants).
I find the thing about vowel harmony weird, to me it's simply weird to have [ɛ] or especially [ɔ] in an open syllable, regardless of what is in the next syllable.
The spanish predictions feel very Chilean and Caribean tbh. As a Chilean I already drop the "ð̼" sound between vowels in words (i.e. dado = dao, pulido = pulío, etc.).
A quick note is that the estar -> ehtar -> etar could also result in a etʰar or etsar, much like Andalusian Spanish. Both Chile and Caribbean dialects descend from Andalusian Spanish, and if we consider that languages in The Americas usually are more similar to the original 1500s-1700s colonizer language than their current European counterparts, there is a chance our languages go that route
Agreed the Andalusian way sounds cool too
This is also very similar to how we speak in Paraguay and Argentina, especially on the pronunciation of estar -> ehtar
Incluso en Córdoba, Argentina, tenemos un regionalismo reconocidísimo en todo el país: «culiáu» ("culiado" que, originalmente, era un insulto, pero que ahora se usa como vocativo apelativo, incluso).
Not really, an Andalusian would pronounce the h in hijo and hija, because everywhere where an f got h, they retained still the h sound in those words. While in Latin American Spanish they don't.
Qué triste ser chileno. 😂
As a Cairene egyptian arabic speaker, I would like to confirm that emphatic consonant are completely lost with the vowels being the sole marker of them and this causes many spelling errors with us.
also emphatic sound spread all over the word like vowel harmony and there is also devoicing at syllable coda.
a common joke explaining this would be egyptian incorrect spelling of نقد and اصطياد as نقط and اصطياط .
southerner still maintain true emphatic consonants tho watch القريفاني channel and you will hear him pronouncing them clearly.
sup fellow egyptian im from cairo too. I want to add as well that people over-emphasize that root-and-pattern morphology makes the language underlyingly very different when it's not. many "root+template" combinations are very idiomatized in semitic languages that speakers certainly just think of such a words without dividing them into a root and a pattern. when i say madrasah مدرسة for example I just know the word means "school" I don't divide it into d-r-s root and a maf'alah template cuz this is useless here just the word just means "school" synchronically. for an analog for this in english, you got many verbs in english ,from latin origin, that start with the preffixes "con-, ex-" like "ex-pire, ex-plode, con-struct, con-strue, ...etc." but native english speakers never naturally divide these into a root and a prefix because it's unproductive morphology they just memorize the whole thing's meaning in a sentence.
What you've described for spanish sounds almost the same as my dialect, although my vowel system has also changed a bit, my vowels /e/ and /o/ opens when close to a final s, also my /l/s and /ɾ/s sometimes get mixed at the end of words and recently I noticed I sometimes pronounce intervocalic /n/ like /ɾ/. Honestly I doubt that many of those sound changes will generalize but still wanted to comment it
That's quite cool that Spanish's disproportionate tendency towards alveolar sonorant metathesis is alive and well, ostensibly millennia since it began :D
@@enricobianchi4499 I'm not sure if thats called metathesis as I don't change the order of phonemes, instead what I meant was that sometimes I'd pronounce words like "Animal" as /æɾ̃im'æɾ/ (My /a/s also get fronted often, and that final /ɾ/ is only pronounced like that if it is followed by a vowel, everywhere else it would lengthen the vowel, so in isolation, the word would be /æɾ̃im'æ:/).
15:31 As a Romanian native speaker and a passionate grammarian, I will say that, despite the fact that the overwhelming majority of inanimate objects are neuter, that's not because there's a tendency for feminine nouns to become neuter, but it's because throughout history (expanding for at least one thousand years, if not more) there has been an inflow of neologisms and borrowings from other languages and we never perceive the neuter nouns as inanimate; they're just some nouns that behave differently.
Secondly, throughout history, there has been a continuous slow tendency for neuter nouns in Romanian to become feminine and when they become feminine we only perceive them as being feminine, not animate or inanimate.
Thirdly, there will always be an inflow of neologisms and borrowings from other languages and the majority of them will continuously feed the neuter category.
yeah, it s just also that masculine almost always ends with a consonant, and feminine with a vowel that i dont see the neuter changing completely to feminine without it sounding super weird, although adopting the masculine plural is technically possible. Maybe if vowel ă disappears for the feminine and the result would be a feminine word ending in consonant, such a change might take place for femine as well
Ya, out of everything in this video Romanian sounded by far the least likely.
Isn't the neuter in morphology that the singular looks like masculine and the plural looks like feminine?
The last point for dutch loses its strength when you realize many dutch speakers already liaison final r and l to words that begin with h as if it wasn't there
I think liaising away initial h is very common. I even do it in my own name.
Dutch will not lose its schwa as it is readily introduced in words that do not follow the "iambic" speech pattern. I would expect more schwas to show up in consonant clusters, as can be heard already: dertig => derretig, melk => mellek, straat => steraat (especially in accents that have lost the rolling r).
2:30 Some dialects of Spanish already do this, particularly Caribbean (including North Venezuelan) and Canarian dialects. Mine for example pronounces them as such:
[tːaꜛ] - estar
[ˈpːehu] - espejo
[kːuˈtʃa] - escuchar
Also note the deletion of [e] at the beginning of the words before “sC” clusters.
Part of your Spanish prediction already occurs in Andalucía, Extremadura and Murcia you have geminated consonants (voiceless obstruents are also aspirated, and geminated t can be fricativised in some areas) more than a h+consonant secuence. In fact, eastern Andalucía and Murcia don't actually use h for S in any case, and you have a tongue root vowel harmony process in which you can hear from 8 to 10 different vowel sounds. On the one hand elision of intervocalic d is also habitual in many parts of Spain and its becoming more and more common in a very short time span. On the other hand B and G are usually pronounced. Past participles ended in -ado and -ido end up being pronouced ao (dipthong) and ío (hiatus) but we havent developed anything similar to vowel length while eliding D in nada or todo, remaining as na and to with a short vowel.
In the caribbean is very normal vowel length i am from the dominican republic and is very normal.
@@aminabel4289 ¿Pero las vocales largas pertenecen a una misma sílaba o serían dos distintas?
@@pedrodevicentelopez3650 no estoy seguro no se mucho al respecto yo hablo desde mi experiencia personal y las palabras en general que terminan en con son sílabas de "D" como da ,de di, do , du o en una D se puede eliminar la D como el ejemplo : nada -> naa otro ejemplo como : yo te he dado algo --> yo te he dao algo , la "D" se elimina y también ocurre con todos los verbos o palabras que terminen en "R" ejemplos:
Correr -->corree
Mirar --> miraa
Construir --> construii
Nido --> nioo
Empujar --> empujaa
Dividir --> dividii
Casualidad --> casualidaa
Electricidad --> electricidaa
Todo esto ocurre con normalidad pero aveces no con en todas las palabras como por ejemplo la palabra "nada"del verbo nadar yo nunca he escuchado a alguien decir (el naa bien ) pero si he escuchado mucho ( tu no tiene naa) no se por que pasa poro es interesante.
@@aminabel4289creo que es por analogía. Como la D tónica se pronuncia, nadie dice “naar”, y entonces la pronuncian en todas las conjugaciones. Acá en México también se está volviendo común saltársela, pero la R se conserva
@@TiagoH1710 me podrías dar un ejemplo conservando la R .
If you're gonna make a part 2, you should include Portuguese. Here's some things that I've noticed that are slightly changing in the accent of my region (São Paulo metropolitan area) that can became a general feature in the future:
* I've noticed that before an ending S we add a semivowel j before, like in "vocês" (you) is pronounced like /vo.'sejs/, this feature is even stronger in accents like the ones from Rio, were it happens in every S's at the end of a syllable, even in words like "mesmo" (same) that's /ˈmejʒ.mʊ/ where in São Paulo it would be /ˈmez.mʊ/
* The palatalized TI and DI pronounced as /tʃi/ and /dʒi/, is slightly becoming /ʃi/ and /ʒi/ respectively, like "verdade" can sound like /veɹ.ˈdaʒʲ/ instead of /veɹ.'da.dʒɪ/
Second one ... I think you're hearing a weakly-articulated [tɕ] and [d̥ʑ̊], they're more palatalized and often devoiced but still an affricate. Verdade, *verdache (deleting the -e like someone from Portugal would) and *verdás (removing the yod *ajɕ) would NOT rhyme for me and I also have that weakening, [d̥ʑ̊], [ʃ] and [ɕ] respectively (yes, we theoretically could contrast [ʃ] and [ɕ] in Portugal and in Rio, guanache and *guanás also sound very different).
A good way to train yourself to notice the difference is pretend to be a carioca and say dentes. [ˈdẽ̞ɘ̯̃.tɕɕ̩] vs [ˈdẽ̞ɘ̯̃.tʃɕ̩], the first sounds like it could be dente but just saying dentttte, the second definitely sounds like dentes. The first dentes you could try weakly articulating for as far as you want but it still won't sound like denxes or denxe.
Segura aí que de chiado eu entendo 😂
Here are some things I want to say about the Dutch section of the video: I don't think I have that "Katten in" liaison, I just say /de kɑtə ɪn/, also, I might have noticed myself using intervocalic /ɾ/ for 'd' (like in the word bedden), not fot 't' though.
It would actually be "geaspireerde H" and not "geäspireerde H", since 'ea' is not a diphthong in Dutch and as such wouldn't be confused as one.
I'm not sure if the schwa is gonna get dropped, and in a word like hond/honden, there's still the final consonant devoicing that needs to be accounted for, it would seem weird if it suddenly went from ɦɔnt/ɦɔndə to ɦɔnt/ɦɔnt
i do also wanna mention that most people don't pronounce the h in het.
also, i do have intrusive n. in fact, i also have it in places where it historically isn't present!
It would be then hond in singular, but honn in plural. Like hand, henn.
@@purple_purpur7379the issue is, that ›et‹ is a cognate of German ›es‹, while the h-forms died out in Middle High German. They follow the hīc haec, hoc as cognates. So in Old High German, hiz, and iz are to different pronouns, the same as her and er are to different pronouns. her means *this he* while er means *he* only. The same with hiz means *this it* while iz means *it* only. In some German dialects this distinction is still alive. I know from a Hessian dialect that het Büdsche (this store) is different to et Büdsche (the store). But also in German in *heute* (today), the h-form is contained from hiu tagu (instrumental case masculine: at this! day).
I've noticed the palatalization of /t/ and /d/ before /i/ in Quebecois French as well, I definitely think that's a shift well underway!
pou_ts_ine
I don't think it's underway. I believe it's done in most part of Québec (it doesn't exist in more eastern accents): tu and ti as (tsu) and (tsi), and du and di as (dzu) and (dzi). But I don't see them morph into tshu, tshi and dju, dji.
@@Xerxes2005 I had *one* psychology teacher who would say tchi tchu dji dju but 99.9% of other people says tsi tsu dzi dzu yes.
I'm a 66 year-old Canadian francophone and have never heard (or pronounced) them any other way in this country - other than by foreigners, of course.
Locals can, of course, differ in the extent to which these are pronounced in "exagerated" ways...
Apropos the French vowel harmony: the dominant trend in metropolitan French is to treat mid-high and mid-low oral vowels as positional allophones merging them to mid-low in closed syllables and to mid-high in open syllables. This process does not affect Quebec French, but is present to various degrees in Belgian and Suisse French
As a learner of French, this explains a lot. I always got confused when to use which e, because I felt like many people used a closed e where I would expect an open one and now I know I'm not crazy
@@joriskbos1115 In careful speech and high registers (public announcements, theatre, audiobooks, etc.), these distinctions are usually maintained, but not always and not by all speakers
I would say the trend in France is the spreading of Position law for un-accented mid-vowels (already the norm in Southern french and in Mid-eastern french/Switzerland), and in some many places (mostly in South and West) on accented É/È. The other big trend is the movement on nasals. The merging of UN/IN has put instability in the nasals and AN is closing. The nasals are moving too in Quebec french but they are moving backwards and are opening. These traits are already quite commons in medias and unnoticed. The palatisation phenomenon is more socially despised and may not go further. It may even occur some strong hypercorrection reactions.
@@steftef5323
Exactly my thoughts.
These pairs
e/ɛ
ø/œ
o/ɔ
are not undistiguished due to replacement by the mid-close vowels in each pair, but the distinction is moving towards the "Loi de la position". In Northern France, for instance, the phonetic distinction between Simple Future and Conditional (Je mangerai/Je mangerais) has been lost in virtually all of France.
Whereas with o/ɔ there seems to be some resistance due to the fact that o generally corresponds to Open Mid /ɔ/ and au/eau are nearly always pronounced as closed mid /o/.
In Quebec french I'd say generally o ɔ and ø œ oppositions are unchanged, but the e ɛ opposition in open syllables is very unstable except for the last vowel which fully maintains the opposition, ie most people couldn't tell you if it's éléphant vs eléphant vs élephant vs elephant, but "manger" vs "mangeait" are still fully distinct.
As a French native speaker from Paris, a few things:
- The palatalization/affrication (to me it's affrication but there's room for debate) is well under way and it's not just before /i/, it's also before "u" /y/. So "tu dis" (you say) is pronounced something like /tʃy dʒi/. It hasn't reached formal speech yet but it's spreading fast. Our former PM Gabriel Attal even used it in a speech (although it was a speech that he delivered in front of farmers and maybe as someone who never left the 6th arrondissement of Paris he thought it made him sound less formal and more "popular", even though affrication is pretty much nonexistent in rural areas of France, but I digress).
EDIT: come to think of it, for T and D actually there's a social divide between an upper class / White / older generation palatalization and a working class / suburban / non-white / younger generation affrication
-While most people have noticed it for /t/ and /d/, I think I have noticed it for other plosives as well. /k/ definitely becomes something like /kç/ before /i/ and /y/, so "qui" and "c*l" become something like /kçi/ and /kçy/. /g/ also affricates (or palatalizes depending on who you ask) a little bit before those vowels to something like /gʝ/ although it's a little bit less stark (I've read papers suggesting /c/ and /ɟ/ but that's not my personal impression). Finally, while I don't think I've noticed /p/ and /b/ being affected by /i/ or maybe just ever so slightly, they do change to something like /pɸ/ and /bβ/ before /y/, so "pu" and "bu" become something like /pɸy/ and /bβy/.
EDIT: actually, come to think of it, there's a weird thing where while /y/ does trigger a bilabial fricative, /i/ I think actually triggers palatal fricatives /ç/ and /ʝ/ after the bilabial plosives /p/ and /b/. Which makes sense in a way given /i/'s relation to /j/, which is a palatal, and given the roundness of /y/.
*Sorry I didn't have the little IPA hat that you put to show that two consonants are pronounced as one unit.
- About the 'aimais" / "aimé" contrast at 9:06, yeah, to me that one's a goner. At the very least, /aimé/ is just pronounced /eme/ now. Pronouncing "aimais" as /ɛmɛ/ sounds weird and old-fashioned to me, so I don't see it surviving. Pronouncing it as /emɛ/ doesn't sound as weird though, to me it's in free variation with /eme/.
- About /ʁ/ : yeah, it's definitely happening, it's even stronger than what you say in my opinion, at least in Parisian French which is quite influential. I could see it becoming something like Semitic Ayin /ʕ/, or even disappearing altogether after vowels, maybe not back vowels.
About the /k/ and /g/ before /i/ and /u/: maybe that depends from the regions but I definitely hear /c/ and /ɟ/.
I don't remember who did it but there has been a study where Hungarian speakers were asked to copy in Hungarian spelling an audio in French . They tended to write /ki/ and /ky/ "tyi" and "tyü" (which is pronounced [ci] and [cy] in Hungarian) rather than "ki" and "kü".
Brazilian Portuguese also has palatalized /ni, nĩ/, /ki, kĩ/, /gi, ɡĩ/, /mi, mĩ/, /ʁi, ʁĩ/ ([çi, çɪ̃]) and /fi/ (the latter only in Rio de Janeiro) as well as palatalization AND glottalization of /li, lĩ/ (glottalization only in the Southeast, Center-West, and some in Amazon, Bahia, and the coast of Santa Catarina) plus glottalization of /ɾi, ɾĩ/ (palatalization is more rare) which nobody talks about.
There are many exceptions, though, forianopolitanos pronounce /ti/ and /di/ as [t̠ʲi] [d̠ʲi] (alveolo-palatal) which is extremely close to how we produce /ki/ /gi/ [k̟ʲi ɡ̟ʲi] (palatalized pre-velar, maybe some friction sometimes like in France) in Rio.
@@cheune6677 Interesting. And "ki"/"kü" would be pronounced /kçi///kçy/ in Hungarian?
I know I pronounce it more like /kç/, it's defo a fricative cause I can prolong the sound and there's no /j/-ish quality to it. And I don't think it's an idiosyncrasy on my part but I'll pay closer attention to other people's renditions
@@AnarchoPinkoEuroBr Wow, fascinating! Thanks :)
@@ArturoSubutex I don't speak Hungarian, but according to Wikipedia it's just pronounced as a normal stop (which seems logical to me since it would be hard to distinguish [ci] from [kçi]).
A quick prediction about Japanese since I'm here, I think /w/ is about to go and the only reason it hasn't is because the particle は is still pronounced with /w/. There are even some forms like あたし where a previous /w/ has vanished. We have historically seen the /wi/ and /we/ merge with /i/ and /e/ respectively. Japanese has never had /wu/ (unless you reconstruct it for symmetry reasons I guess but that's on thin ice). More recently, /wo/ has merged with /o/. If this keeps going, goodbye /w/ as a phoneme. I say give it ~100 years? It could also go the entire other route and strengthen to /β̞/ but I find this less likely
apparently the latter has already happened
according to the wikipedia a 2020 real-time mri study has shown that it's better described as [β̞] rather than [w] or [ɰ], which is how it was described as traditionally
i'd not write /w/ off as det to die for now. you still have like a shitton of recent loans with plenty various /wV/ combinations (albeit they are sometimes nativised to /uV/ tbf)
@dimanyak373 I'd have to see the original study for context. There's a few situations in which one would be inclined to enunciate their speech or another limiting context like at the beginning of words or other things like that.
@@soraneyorumi2017 sure, the study is cited on the japanese phonology wiki page in the consonants phonetic notes subsection
"Japanese has never had /wu/"
Wait so /uwu\ never has been?? 🥺
For the Spanish changes i would like to point attention to the accent from Córdoba, Argentina.
Not only it is doing both the coda s->h and dropping intervocalic b/d/g, it already has long vowels that stand out when compared to other dialects.
It is currently entirely allophonic as it is tied to the stress pattern of the word but a few sounds being dropped messing with the syllable count could easily make the long vowels phonemic.
Can confirm, I am Brazilian and it's pretty tough to understand northern Argentinians but not hard at all to understand Paraguayans and Uruguayans. Deletion of consonants is the most tough feature of Spanish for me bar none.
1:55 As a native Spanish speaker, I agree almost 100% with this prediction. I rarely pronounce a pure s before another consonant. However, I mostly pronounce the s before a vowel or h.
For example I say: "loh gatoh" (or loh gatos) but "los arboleh" (or los árboles). I hardly ever say "loh arboleh" because with the s not only does it sound better but it flows better in my mouth. It's kind of like the liaison in French.
2:35 Interesting prediction. It's very likely this will happen.
3:05 You rarely hear? What kind of Spanish speakers have you been spending time with?? These three variations of d, b and g are soft sounds per se. Maybe very casually and informally you won't hear them but with enough listening practice you will definitely hear them
I've also been studying French for several years so...
7:10 I've actually heard both sounds coexisting. I tend to produce the approximant much more as a non native speaker because it's easier for me. My throat doesn't hurt hahaha
7:50 THIS. I've realized they do this but I can't pronounce t and d like them. I just say /t/ and /d/ not /tj/ /dj/. I still can't understand how I'm supposed to pronounce them without saying "ti" and "di". In fact with t, I get confused with the aspirated t in English.
El venao, el venao
I have been in the Netherlands for 23 years and have noticed they have been using a lot of English loan words dressed up in Dutch grammar. I recently read a novel and was shocked at the level of use of English words where a perfectly good Dutch alternative exists eg “fixen” vs “repareren” and “printen” vs “afdrukken” just to mention a couple.
In swedish reparera is borrowed directly from latin (so we are looking at early church influence here, before the protestant reformation), also had a look at the wiki and it seams like dutch borrowed this word from old french, so it might not be the best example to support your theory
Those aren't English loans. fixen is a completely Dutch version of German fixieren. The same with repareren, which is the version of German reparieren. And why is printen the English loan?
@@simontollin2004exactly, all aren't loans from English.
I don't know who is deleting my comments....
I like that your prediction of french is the things I as a non-native living in Paris already do. The only thing missing is further merger of the nasals.
Oh, and a thing really missing is further reduction of unstressed /e/ and /ɛ/ - it's already somewhat common in function words like j'étais being pronounced like j'tais
As an Andalusian, seeing the thumbnail just made me go "oh fuck we're gonna be first up on the French Lite change"
would love to see a video about predictions in some slavic languages
I'll add for Hindi
hindi will redevelop its case system, in modern Hindi when spoken we tend to add the post position in word root only like it's more common to say
mere charge sāmnē over mere ghar ke sāmnē. then rāmnē sitāko phal diyā. (this one is like almost done in all dialects)
verbs loosing gender agreement(meaning hindi starting to loose its gender)(this is already in its process where we have femine or non feminine)(or masculine or feminine) this is where we get rekhta and rekhti split.(this one is fully done)
hindi verbs becoming more agglutnative and the /h/ sound shifting to more or less /v/ /j/ geminated depending on the area(this one will cause rahā/rahī/rahēn/rahīn to become rhā rhī rhēn and rhīn where in plural the genders gonna merge (actually no it already has happened).
hindi developing clusitivty (since my dialects along with western hindi already has it).
hindi getting noun classifiers in some dialect since I grew up speaking both bengali and hindi. often I also use noun classifiers.(this is shared with many speakers ig)(you can correct me)
hindi getting more suffixes like in bengali we merged auxiliary verbs to particles like likhe dio to likhedio and likhe gelam to likhegelam both now meaning two different ideas same will happen in hindi) due to dropping of hiatus and linking). like likhdio, likhagayā.same going for others. hindi developing more moods.and an inchoative aspect from the verb --uṭh getting gramaticalised to a suffix like likhuṭhnā to start writing.
then developing of evidenciality(shared with russian).
next hindi suffxing its pronouns to the verb endings
For Hebrew: Like you said about the long vowels, this has already been happening. It's also been one of my personal predictions for quite some time now. In my own speech I've noticed that when the second of two identical vowels is stressed, I sometime insert a very weak consonant, maybe a sort of glottal approximant (I don't know how common this is). Raising the pitch exactly as you did sounds like question intonation, and I raise it slightly less. So maybe question intonation could be made more exaggerated, to make "space" for the rising tone.
About voicing assimilation, I've heard it, but way more in older speakers (including שׁ and also across word boundary!). Not to say that younger speakers don't do it, but less. And *progressive* voicing assimilation has already happened sometime in history, as can be seen in Dt-stem verbs with ז as the first root letter (compare הזדקר vs הסתגר).
I've also noticed that some inflected prepositions (chiefly את, של, and ל־) are commonly weakened, and I think this could lead to a re-innovation of enclitic pronouns. E.g. לך loses its initial consonant and vowel and becomes 'ך, which can get attached to the previous word as in שיקר'ך (if the previous word ends in a vowel, the ך might get compensatorily geminated). Note that in this specific case, the resulting form is identical to the original enclitic pronoun, except that it's unstressed.
The historical voicing assimilation might have been originally regressive, before the -s- infix metathesized. I don't know the chronology here.
I feel like in Puerto Rican Spanish at least, syllable final N will start to disappear and become affect the vowel before it, turning it into a nasal vowel (so "pan" will be pronounced /pã/ instead of "pan" or "paŋ", the latter being the current Boricua pronunciation). Also, I hear some F sounds being pronounced as /ɸ/ and J is disappearing, so I'd say F becomes /h/ and J becomes silent (like H did)? Also current RR in some dialects is pronounced as /χ/, so maybe that will also get softened or maybe it'll continue like that, but then again, it's more of a rural thing, so maybe it'll actually disappear in favour of /r/. Heck, maybe R and RR will merge into /ɾ/. I think words that start with ES will also begin to lose the E and the S (estar will go from /eʰtal/ → /tal/ for example, which I hear happening already). Those are just some of my predictions for Borcua Spanish based on some of my observations, however most Boricuas I come into contact with are in the States, so maybe the changes will be different on the island. This is all assuming that Spanish doesn't die out anong Puerto Ricans in favour of English though
Resuming: Puerto Rican Spanish is turning into Portuguese 😅
@@Omouja pretty much yeah 😂
[ʒ] does exist in hebrew, its a marginal non-native phoneme but it definitely exists in words like ז׳אנר or ז׳קט
I live in egypt, I noticed the emphatics don't basically exist enymore. All its left is vowels, I think it's already happened in cairo at least!
Here's some possible future changes to my native language, British English (specifically, the general dialect spoken in London and the Home Counties)
Firstly, piggybacking off what you said in your Future American video:
- The aspirated plosives will probably all become affricates (this has already happened in Scouse (the dialect spoken in Liverpool), and is starting to happen in Cockney and Estuary) - in addition, I also think syllable-final plosives (including voiced plosives) will also become affricates, since I notice myself saying "ʃɛd͡z" by accident quite a lot, and turns out I'm not the only one who does this
- Pre-yod "h" will not be dropped - we actually had our own way of dealing with yod clusters, and that was through yod-coalescence (except for alveolar nasals, where we drop the yod just like you do in the US), ie merging the two consonants in the cluster into a single postalveolar or palatal consonant (this is why British people say "choose-day" instead of "twos-day"). In the case of /hj/, this coalesced into /ç/, giving us /çʉʊ̯d͡ʒ/.
- H-dropping has taken place in most dialects in the UK already, but I'm not so confident in this happening universally anymore because MLE (Multicultural London English), a dialect partially influenced by Cockney, as well as Jamaican, Indian, Bengali, Nigerian, etc, English, and which is at the top of the influence heirarchy (young, urban, used by all genders), put the /h/ back in, even though Cockney dropped /h/. Estuary (the dialect I speak) doesn't drop /h/ either (for the most part; it's complicated). Therefore, I do think /h/ will be here to stay. And yes, I do think MLE will influence the general London/Home Counties dialect a lot in the future. I think a “compromise” dialect between MLE and Received Pronunciation will also become a thing, like what happened with Cockney (Estuary is effectively just Diet Cockney), and, for the record; this is the dialect I’m predicting.
- There is starting to be an allophone wherein before any back vowel that is close-mid or more open, it is pronounced as the pharyngeal /ħ/ instead, e.g. "hot" is pronounced /ħɔʔ/. I think this allophone will become more universally used by more Britons in the future.
- Regarding consonant clusters; to set the scene, in informal speech, in scenarios wherein the "glottal t" (bɔʔəl ə woʔʌ) would happen with /t/, /p/ and /k/ are instead /ʔ͡p/ and /ʔ͡k/, respectively (except word-finally), so "paper" is /pʰɛɪ̯ʔ͡pʌ/, and "baker" is /bɛɪ̯ʔ͡kʌ/. I think that in the future, the digraph /kt/ (ʔ͡kt) will first simplify to /ʔt/ (which I already do by accident sometimes), and then simplify further to just /t/, which would make the "glottal t" fully phonemic - meaning /fɐt͡s/ (I'll explain the vowel shift later) would not be "fat", but rather "fact"; fat would be /fɐʔ/.
- Cockney and Estuary already changed their dental fricatives to the equivalent labiodental fricatives, except the word-initial voiced dental fricative, which is either /d/ or /d̪/, depending on the speaker). MLE also did the same thing, except all word-initial dental fricatives, regardless of voicing, became plosives, so, famously, MLE speakers pronounce thing as /tʰɪŋ/. The exception is in the trigraph “thr”, where it became a fricative as well, so “through” is /fʋʏː/. I think MLE rules for what to do about dental fricatives will become the norm in Future British English.
- I don’t think I need to tell you that the /w/ to /ɣʷ/ shift will not happen in British English, since we don’t have a Spanish-speaking community large enough to influence pronunciation. Since Latinos are the largest minority group in the US, let’s look at how the /w/ is pronounced by our largest minority group, Indians. In Indian English, they pronounce both /w/ and /v/ as the labiodental /ʋ/, just like in Dutch and Norwegian, two other Germanic languages. And sure enough, we are starting to see a shift to /ʋ/ in British English… from /ɹ̠/. Yes, there is a phenomenon called r-labialisation taking place all over Britain right now, where the r-sound is starting to be pronounced as /ʋ/. It is currently considered “defective” by some people, but to be honest, enough people do it now that it’s not really a speech defect anymore, it’s just an alternative way of pronouncing /ɹ̠/. The person most famous for possessing this shift is TV presenter Jonathan Ross, and that's probably because he's significantly older than most people with this shift, so he sticks out a bit more. I do think /ɹ̠/ will stick around as an allophone though, depending on the consonant preceding it. As for /w/… honestly, this will probably just stay as it is, since there are no viable candidates for what could replace it.
- Yup, it’s MLE’s time to shine again - they’ve flattened most diphthongs already; e.g. from /fɛɪ̯s/ to /feːs/, from /maʊ̯θ/ to /maːf/, and, most uniquely, /pʰɹ̠ɑɪ̯s/ to /pʰʋɛːs/. As for Future General Southeastern British English, I’m most confident in the face and mouth vowels flattening, since a lot of people (myself included) already do the latter, so I pronounce the name of the city I live in /saːfɛnd͡z/. As for “price”, that will probably become closer to MLE, but still stay a diphthong, so /p͡ɸʋɛɪ̯s/. (Insert one of your memes of Marty McFly saying “I guess you guys aren't ready for that, yet. But your kids are gonna love it.” about /p͡ɸʋɛːs/ here)
- I personally think an anti-clockwise shift is more likely in Britain, since MLE has already shifted /gʉʊ̯s/ to /gʏːs/, and /t͡ʃɹ̠ap/ to /t͡ʃɹ̠ɐp/, and I’ve noticed myself saying /d͡ʒɹ̠æs/ instead of the standard /d͡ʒɹ̠ɛs/ by mistake quite a lot. I can see /nɪː/ becoming /nɛː/, and /pʰɑːm/ becoming /p͡ɸʌːm/.
- In Britain, we have our own second-person plural pronoun used in casual speech, and that’s “yous”. In Ireland, they also say “yous”, but also have “yizzer”, the plural form of “your” (from yousr).
- Another MLE ting! So in MLE, sometimes they can use “man” as the first, second, and third-person singular pronoun variably (e.g. “man try say he’s better than me, tell my man shut up”). This… probably won’t have much influence on Future General Southeastern British English. What probably will influence FGSEBE though is MLE’s conjugation of “was” and “weren’t”, which is the same regardless of person, e.g. “they was gettin' bare rude”.
Okay, so that’s it from your video, but there is one more MLE change I think will spread to other British dialects is the allophone wherein before any back vowel that is close-mid or more open, velar plosives are retracted to become uvular instead, e.g. /q͡χoʊ̯ʔ/ and /ɢoʊ̯ʔ/ will be the future pronunciations for “coat” and “goat”, respectively.
I love humans. The same brilliant individual who is fascinated by language, with wide expertise in 7 languages with a focus on the peculiarities of each of them, makes a centre-aligned bullet-point list and throws it to the wilderness, unbothered.
9:11 French does not have any stressed syllables on the word level, only on the ip and IP! So when one word is said isolated, the last syllable sounds stressed because of the boundary tones etc.
An observation I noticed in Italian (I'm specifically talking about the southern accents) is the palatization of the sounds k and g before j in something close to c and ɟ that might bring in minimal pairs like "cave" [kaːve] (empty) and "chiave" *[caːve] (key) or "Gaia" [gaːja] and "ghiaia" *[ɟaːja] (gravel). So yeah this would create a three way c/g dinstinction that does not exist in other Romance languages.
On Dutch, I feel like it's pretty common for many young people to use the "wrong" preposition in some specific cases through English influence which I notice a lot in people who went to international schools and in gen alpha. It is also extremely common to use English loanwords at random just because it popped into your head earlier and you know the other person will understand, or you use a less common Latin-derived cognate of an English word. Especially zoomers like me do this among themselves, but you notice it with some words in boomers too. One words I've noticed it with is "pickpocket" instead of the Dutch word "zakkenroller". I think it is likely English will have a similar impact on Dutch vocabulary in the next couple of centuries as (Norman) French had on English.
@@joriskbos1115 thanks for this. See my comment above about loan words in Dutch
I'm a native speaker of (European) Spanish and holy hell, your pronunciation is good mate. I'd like to hear you pronouncing whole sentences and the like, I much prefer your Spanish voice to your English voice (not that the latter is bad, but your Spanish voice is cool).
Any thoughts on Russian and Polish's future developments?
in russian, I noticed that a lot of speakers drop intervocalic stops and (I think only voiced) fricatives, so:
тебе /t'eb'e/ > те /t'e/
привет /pr'iv'et/ > прет /pr'et/
that seems to be happening more in more common words, and less in borrowed (like science terms)
now, I'm not sure what will happen to vowels. possibly merging into diphtongs or long vowels, or the lost consonants may bleed into their quality (to prevent a lot of possible homophones from appearing), for example, the palatalization might front the vowels a bit or something:
CVC'V > CVV'
(' is palatalization here)
@@dasha_in_vibe
>in russian, I noticed that a lot of speakers drop intervocalic stops and (I think only voiced) fricatives, so:
I don't think, what it's a strict phonetic process. So, it's normal for regular speech to simplify obvious words. Like здравствуйте [ˈzdra.stvuj.tʲɪ]>['zdrastʲɪ]>['drastʲɪ]>[dr̩s'tʲi], человек [[t͡ɕɪɫɐˈvʲek]>[t͡ɕek] etc. But it doesn't mean, what all other word acts like this.
In other hand, similar process could be before in the history of Russian language. There is a theory, what -ого ending become pronounced as -о[v~ʋ]о in result of consonant drop. [ogo]>[oɣo]>[oo]>[оvо]
>possibly merging into diphtongs or long vowels
I don't think, what it's possible. The Russian voсalism have a tendency to simplify. We can see it on the example of developing of reduction system. Unstressed vowels a,э,и become unrecognizable by pronunciation after soft consonants, all three is reduced to [ɪ]. Keep in mind, what only 4 vowels can be in that position. It's the really huge simplification and this happened during the last century.
Russian stress system is still developing. And it's not become easier. A vowel reduction for o and a can be simplified. An a-ending for plural masculine nominative nouns becomes more widespread. In my opinion these vectors are more valid.
As an Andalusian (western dialect mostly, as in my final s becomes h and not an open vowel), I pretty much already talk with long vowels and geminated consonants tbh. I also want to point out that when I was telling a chinese speaker about the way andalusians talk and how we pronounce plurals, he could tell the difference between singular and plurals, not because he could hear the aspiration at the end but because the tone was different, so that could be fun to think about tone in Spanish.
There is always tone in the languages. The issue is if there is a semantic layer for those tones which are given my the grammar or not. You have tone in German, English etc. and it is used for example differentiating between nouns and verbs, which were otherwise identical or between two different verbal conjugations, between question or statement etc.
@@SchmulKrieger I know, I’m just saying it’s funny cause I thought of it as s aspiration, I never realised that I do speak plurals with a different tone and although I severely doubt this will happen, it would be funny to think of my dialect developing some tone stuff.
I can't hear tones or vowel length very well so I can understand Spanish either better than certain dialects of my own native Portuguese or as a full foreign intangible experience depending on how much people delete /s/ and /d/. Aspiration is fine.
13:35 jokes on you, I also do the "liaison" when the next word starts with h (for me "naar huis" and "na ruis" sound the same). (Also, I'm not sure if most Dutch people pronounce an h in "het" the article, as it actually derives from a weak form of "dat" that got reinterpreted as "het", but I think many people do sometimes.)
No, it does not. the h-forms of the pronouns were on their own, just right next to the h-less forms, and the d-forms are also on their own. For example you see this in Latin. hoc (het), id (et). het Büdsche in Hessian is this store, while et Büdsche is the store. The same in Old High German ›her‹ is this he, while ›er‹ is simply he. Same with hiz and iz (this it, it) in Old High German. But the h-forms have nothing to do with the d-forms. As we can see in Old Saxon and Old High German and even in Old English and so on.
Mmm you are not considering that Spanish is already considered a Macrolanguage such as Arabic, that means that we use a Standard form, so everything you have explained has already happened but the written language has not disappeared because we Spanish speakers are very respectful regarding orthography rules, which are more knowledgeable throughout the Spanish speakers, a totally different socio-economical situation from that it existed when the Romance languages started to appear.
All the things you say its happening right now with the spanish in the dominican republic and its very normal 😂😂
My personal prediction about the Spanish phenomenon of -s to -h in coda: tonogenesis
/-s/ coda syllables are pronounced with a lower pitched when pronounced as /-h/ with a breath of air and gets reinterpreted by future generation as a lower tone and the tone becomes phonemic. In turn, the words without -s coda, get reinterpreted as mid tone or high tone. Like the la/las minimal pair becomes la (high tone) and la (low tone). Spanish becomes a pitch accent language.
Parallel IRL: Old Chinese to Middle Chinese tonogenesis. And I genuinely believe in this theory!
The "o oraș" in the romanian part caused a short circuit in my brain
I'm Costa Rican (we speak Spanish), and I think the s -> h won't occur here likely (at least not in the Central Valley), because we actually tend to pronounce final s even stronger than the norm. In fact, our "s" and "r"s are quite characteristic on our dialect. Some words could become shorter, but not the way one could expect, like "entonces" ("then") becoming "tonces" or even "tonss", or "Gracias" ("thanks") turning into "Racias" (with tap r rather than trill r) and even "rass".
I do see the intervocalic d dissapearing, but the final d changing into t. And I can't imagine the intervocalic b and g dissapearing here either.
But again, this could be the case for Costa Rican Spanish. For other varieties of Spanish I actually can see your prediction turning right some decades or even one pair of centuries later.
Serbian has several fascinating changes happening:
-several things derided as grammatical 'errors' have become completely entrenched in the language: 1) using 'bi' as the potential for all persons and pluralities, e.g. 'Mi bi da počnemo' instead of 'Mi bismo da počnemo' for 'We would (like to) begin.' 2) using the 'trebali smo' construct instead of the impersonal 'trebalo je' for 'I need' 3) using the infinitive with a preposition 'for' similar to 'for the taking', i.e. 'za poneti' (for the taking, i.e. to go), 'za plakati' (to cry about), 'za ne verovati' (unbelievable) and so on
-weakening and dropping elsewhere of mid-word 'v', 'd' and 'b': 'dobar i vredan čovek' (a good and hard-working man) is slowly in speech becoming: 'doar i vrean čoek'. You could straight up say it like this and no one would notice. A more bold prediction would be that afterwards voiced pairs 't' and 'p' would weaken to 'd' and 'b' mid-sentence, i.e. 'Vetar duva' (The wind blows) would become 'Vedar dua'.
-the slurring of the future tense, similar to 'going to' becoming 'gonna': 'ću da', 'ćeš da', 'će da', 'ćemo da', 'ćete da', 'će da' becoming 'ćua, ćea, ćea, ćeoa, ćea, ćea.' E.g. 'Ja ću da radim' (I will work) becoming 'Ja ćua rajim.'
-a further simplification of the tense system, the gradual loss of Second Future used to describe events that are conditions for a future event happening, e.g. 'Kad budem stigao, počnite.' (When I arrive, begin.), will be replaced by the present 'Kad stignem, počnite'.
-The perfect gradually might be used in general even for future events that are about to happen. E.g. many people nowadays say 'Otišao sam', i.e. 'I have gone!', when they're just about to leave, as in 'Consider me gone!' Might even bleed into a form of Future perfect that the language currently doesn't have.
As for Spanish, those shifts have been common in Caribbean and Andalusian accents for several years, even a few centuries, maybe. From my perspective, that pronunciation is still frowned upon in other regions, but acknowledging the current popularity of Caribbean music, new generations might embrace it quickly... It'll be interesting listening to my grand-children speaking Spanish with a Puerto Rican accent.
From how I speak and what I hear the loss of א ה ע has already happened and became long vowels in casual speech (I can’t even pronounce ע).
Edit: but ya, all of your predictions for Hebrew I completely agree with (and I wouldn’t even think twice if I heard someone speaking with them today). Though personally I really doubt anyone would interpret that as being a pitch accent, rather than just 2 vowels in a row, with either the first or second being stressed.
Well some words still keep their original pronunciation while other didn’t
@@chimera9818 nope, that’s just not how sound change works. All words will change, no exceptions.
About your Hebrew :
1)first part main problem is we still have the writing system and we probably won’t move from it too much so even if we will completely lose the sounds of אהע and all become a we would still pronounce them just flatter.
2) kinda similar to first point we would still know how stuff should be pronounced though that I can see happen though probably not to extreme that you described and most likely be something Hebrew speaker would end up doing when they speak really fast (like the word for school is beit sefer and some times when talking fast it commonly end as bestefer ) but would still know it is wrong in Hebrew to pronounce it that way.
3) technically we do have way to write letters that aren’t in Hebrew by adding ‘ to them so the letter for the g sounds ג become ג׳ to the j sounds for example , so if I had to guess the writing would be ר׳ for R like sound you mentioned, ח׳ to the ח like sounds you mentioned and ז׳ already exist so i don’t know what you are talking about
Interestingly, in Korean, the word-initial clusters "sp", "st", and "sk" developed into the faucalized "emphatic" plosives "pp", "tt", and "kk", which to my knowledge don't exist in other languages. For instance, Middle Korean ᄯᅥᆨ〮 (sték) became Modern Korean 떡 (tteok).
Intriguingly, this itself may be part of an emerging language shift itself in Korean, involving plosive quality distinctions (p, pp, b) transforming into tonal distinctions (p and pp would be high, b would be low), a similar pattern to what's happened with Chinese and Punjabi.
That first thing on Spanish is indeed a very well documented phenomena for Caribbean Spanish, I can speak for Dominican Spanish.
In lower classes though the [s] before a vowel in a different syllable is not aspirated. So in your example, "Los Arboles" is more commonly "Lo_s-Arbole".
The dropping of the h sounds like what I do in casual speech. But for now I only do that when "het" is unstressed (not a schwa).
this is such a cool exercise.
honestly I can't really even begin to think about how my language, Italian, could evolve in regards to its grammar or phonology at all. vocabulary-wise that's already a bit easier.
The depharyngealization of the emphatic consonants and phonemic split of /a/ for Arabic had already happened in Maltese, a descendant of the Siculo-Arabic dialects spoken a millenium ago.
The emphatic consonants would prevent /a/ from usually raising into a high vowel such as ⟨e⟩ or ⟨i⟩ and lonɡ /aː/ into ⟨ie⟩, and even as far as lowering short /i/ and /u/ into ⟨a⟩. As the vowels slowly drifted away from each other, the emphatics were now free to merge with their non-emphatic counterparts.
I imagined this happened after Malta had been split off from the Arabic world, in which it was free to evolve on it's own really quickly without a conservative force acting on it.
For my spanish dialect the 's' to 'h' change is actually very rare to hear but the second change is really common (including myself)
Great vídeo
Palatalization of ti di ty ty in French already exists: in Quebec it's fully tsi dzi tsy dzy (also affected by j ɥ). It also already has regressive tense/lax vowel harmony but mostly in high vowels [i y u] vs [ɪ ʏ ʊ] (which is allophonic - only lax in closed syllables: "Pyrite" /piʁit/ -> [pɪʁɪt], "Pilule" /pilyl/ -> [pilʏl] or [pɪlʏl] or [pʏlʏl].
native hebrew speaker here. i always thought that we'd end up developing contrasting vowel length due to alef ayin and he being elided but never thought of tones evolving from it! love your take on that. [ke̞ˈ(ʔ)e̞v] specifically is oxytone though (it's a rare template), so according to your theory it would become [kě̞ːv]. also, i think it's perfectly plausible for only long vowels to possess tone.
i think prosody might also play a part in tone development. take the modern form for the feminine imperative form of the verb (to bring), . normally, it would develop into [täˈvîː]. however, if that word is said suggestively, as a question, it could be pronounced [tävǐː].
regarding the voicing assimilation - i don't think tsadi and khet/khaf could devoice their following consonants. in fact, i do hear people a fully voiced [ʒ] in words like [χe̞ʒˈbo̞n] instead of saying /χeʃˈbon/. in my understanding, khet/khaf and tsadi are simply immune to the shift, likely due to the fact you pointed out in the video.
another thing i think we will eventually develop is grammatical case with definiteness distinction. the object marker, /et/, frequently merges with the definite article, /(h)a/, to form /ta/. this, combined with the fact that several prepositions are already written as prefixes since byblical hebrew, can result in a nice case system based on prefixes.
As a Hebrew speaker I completely agree with you on the voicing assimilation, but I see the coalescence of vowels going a different way:
1. when the first vowel is stressed - a long vowel, like you said /'ta.am/ > /taːm/
2. but when the second vowel is stressed, I see the first becoming a shwa and dropping, leaving a short vowel - /ta'am/ > /tə'am/ > /tam/. this is based on the fact that word initial /e/ in hebrew is pretty weak (shva nakh), and cases like /ʃe.u'it/ > /ʃuˈit/ for some people. so the first vowel weakens to schwa (already does in many cases), gets reanalyzed as a weak /e/, and gets dropped entirely. It also benefits from morphological analogy, because one major source of /Ca'aC/ is paal verbs, and there is already precedence for CaC verbs, like רץ, בא, so I think they will get reanalyzed as ones.
Wikipedia notes Caribbean Spanish (Puerto Rican specifically) drops syllable final S. So someone kinda noticed?
Hey from what I've heard, the Ottoman Turkish or Lisan - i - Osmani used a modified version of the Arabic script . But as you know that the turkic languages have too many vowels to be represented by Diacritics and Mater Lectionis (و for ü / ɯ ö etc) so they used the emphatic consonants when they had to represent the back vowels (or atleast a different set of consonants). So if I aint wrong it's something like this:
/tu/ could be written with the letter ط and /ty/ could be written with ت or something on those lines. Note that I could be wrong in pointing out the exact logic but it's fascinating how Arabic might one day use different sets of consonants based on the quality of vowel it precedes.
Regarding spanish, just like you said for the lo/loh phenomenom, gemination is already extremly common in Andalusia, Eastern in particular, even among the elderly so no recent change by any means. Regarding the result of vowels in contact due to elision, it already happens very often in "-ada" and if anything it leads to a short "-á" rather than a long sound.
Nice video. I've noticed some stuff in my (and some local friends) particular French (central Auvergne):
Affrication is much more prominent with voiceless stops than voiced ones - but contrary to Québec French is does tend to be post-alveolar (I basically pronounce "tu" /tʃy/, but in casual, relaxed speech it even becomes something like /tɸ/? with the vowel basically completely devoiced)
The phenomenon of devoicing the /i, y, u, e, ɛ/ at the end of words into some kind of "ç" (eg /mɛʁˈsi̥ç/ merci) in Parisian French is well known but I feel like here /y, u, ø/ tend to become more like a bilabialized /yɸ/ (with as said before, y possibly disappearing entirely), and /a, ɛ/ sound more like /ah, ɛh/. Nasal vowels are completely unaffected.
I kinda feel like the vowel harmonization is already settled here? I can't actually think of times where I contrast e, ɛ within a single word tbh.
I don't know how representative it is, but I do find that friends from other regions pronounce things differently.
Oh and I'd add that in "grammatical" words only, like vous or vais (in the futur proche tense), the /v/ turns to an approximant
Ight this is a big project, but it would be sick if you took Latin American Spanish and made a full video predicting the future languages that would most likely form from it. Take the largest and or distinct accents
Something I'd like to add about my native Puerto Rican spanish is that the rolled r is sometimes pronounced as ghhh (idk the phonetic spelling/sound description) mostly by people who can't or won't roll their r's. I've seen it spreading more and similarly sometimes the single r sound is changed more to an r (or sometimes even an l depending on the position of the letter) you'd find in english. This might be a PR or spanglish exclusive though since english slang is predominant in both.
It's probabably the voiced or the unvoiced uvular fricative , according to Wikipedia- I find this perception as a g or h so interesting as a German, because I really struggle to distinguish that sound from the alveolar tap😅
2:29 normaly U mute the first sylabe, I said "toy ready" not "etoy ready" or "cucha" unitl "escucha" or "ecucha" so, probably in my accent (the uruguayan) we said "el pejo" and not "el epejo" but in some cases we can omit the sylabs and phonems in the middle of the word like "neito" until "necesito", in some cases we omit 2 sylabes, we said "cleta" and not "bicicleta" or "bici"
consonant gemination does happen in some carribean spanish speakers in clusters of {l,r}[+obstruent -voiced], for example "alto" /alto: ['at:o] and arte /arte/ ['at:e]
also, vowel harmony. as a result of la aspiración, some carribean spanish speakers regressively change the quality of vowels before coda [h] (/a/ => [æ], /e/ => [ε], /o/ => [ɔ])
examples:
estar [εh'tal]
estás [εh'tæ]
está [εh'tal]
some dialects with la aspiración already drop coda [h l r] entirely, making this not only possible, but likely
example sentences to pull it together:
«las mujeres altas estaban a casa»
[læ mu'çεɾεh 'æt:æh ε'ta:ŋ a 'casa]
«vamos a ir a la ciudad»
['β̞æmɔh a il a la sju'ð̞a]
«no quiero ser secretario»
[no 'kjeɾo se sekɾe'taɾjo]
irl i pretty much speak like this (unironically and not to influence the future, it just fits best in my mouth) but coda /r/ merged with /l/ and i almost never drop coda [h] or word final [l]
I remember a while ago hearing a Spanish speaker talking about how he turns not just /s/ into [h], But also /f/ and /x/ in many positions, Making the starts of a 3-way merger.
Great video! The claim at 1:21 that some Latin American dialects will only shift coda [s] to [h] when it is spelled with an S is very surprising to me, because it implies that there is a phonemic distinction between /s/ and /θ/ in these dialects (even if the latter never surfaces as a [θ]). Do you know what dialects these are and do you have a source for this?
german (at least here in austria) is losing the suffix for accusative and especially dative cases (in the rare case where word has one). most young people are doing it (both variants sound fine to my ears) and it drives the old people mad.
normally it's (nom.) der Student (dat.) dem Studenten ( = the student). young people often say "Ich gebe dem Student einen Kuchen" (i give a cake to the student) and not "Ich gebe dem Studenten einen Kuchen". even the speakers on the news sometimes do it already.
I often wonder if the ongoing loss of the N-declension is routed in the dificulty of distinguishing the number of the noun in many cases ("Ich werfe den Bären den Löwen zum Fraß vor" - is it one bear being eaten by many lions, or many bears eating one lion?). During the shift from Middle High German to Early Modern German, many nouns where moved to different declension classes to more clearly distinguish singular from plural, leading for example to the moving of feminine nouns like zunge( in MHG declined in the singular: diu zunge, der zungen, der zungen, die zungen; and in the plural: die zungen, der zungen , den zungen , die zungen). Maybe a similiar aversion is still active in current German?
@@danielwalter1467 at least over here there's no way you could confuse the two in colloquial speech. it's "i wirf in bären de löwen zum fraß vor" if it's one bear eaten by lions and "i wirf de bären in löwen zum fraß vor" if it's one lion eaten by bears. i germany i suppose it's similar but with differnt articles (they probably use "nen" for singular which wouldn't work for plural).
I speak portuguese, and I've noticed that this phenomenon of turning S into h is also happening in Brazilian portuguese, specially in my accent, but also in others to lesser extent. In My accent, it is not only S, but also V, Z, and J (which has the same sound as the S in vision). For example, "Hendo", "Caha" and "Há" , instead of "vendo", "casa" (this S has a Z sound) and "Já"
You should have probably mentioned that it's only Ceará, Rio Grande do Norte and surrounding areas that have those features, and they have had those for generations, but it did not spread.
Whereas the pronunciation of /ˈmesmu/ as [ˈmeɦmʊ], [ˈmemˠʷˑ], [ˈmeɘ̯xmʊ], [ˈmeɦmˠʷ], [ˈmehm̥ˠʷ], etc. did spread in the mid-20th century.
To people who are not aware, Brazil had a huge internal migration of people from that area to the Amazon, Rio de Janeiro, São Paulo, Brasília, etc. but also s > h shift was already a strong areal feature of Brazil that can be witnessed in Pirahã and countless Tupian languages, and I have read an article on portunhol do pampa years ago saying that some people already spoke like that along the Brazil-Uruguay border in the 20th century too, long before TV influenced their dialect (plus, cariocas and paulistanos don't speak like that on TV even though we do irl).
Therefore, it's a generic local feature, nevertheless one that's not favored in terms of prestige outside of where it's a marker of the local dialect, basically Ceará, Rio Grande do Norte, Paraíba and Rio de Janeiro [the (two?) latter for codas only], maybe other places. People from northern Brazil migrating to Rio also have that feature but people from Belém and Manaus avoid talking like that while giving interviews.
@@AnarchoPinkoEuroBr that's what I meant with "specially in my accent, but also in others to a lesser extent"
I'm brazilian and I've never seen people pronounce words this way. Qual é o seu sotaque?
@@caelum_obscurus He's from Ceará, northern Rio Grande do Norte or the Parnaíba delta
In (Randstad) Dutch, I know a handful of people who I feel like pronounce their tapped R's a little funny, where it seems to me almost between a tapped and a retroflex R, but I cannot put my finger on the exact sound. I have a professor who I sometimes seem to hear use a retroflex word-initial R which is very strange to me. Also with adjectives that get an extra -e after the final -r, it often sounds to me he misspeaks and accidentally uses a retroflex r, but then corrects by following it by a tap and the e or something like that. And with some people I can never tell whether they say "sorry" with a Dutch or English accent (it doesn't help that it is often said very quickly and mumbly). These same people always end their words with a retroflex r regardless of a vowel in the next word, unlike me. Could this maybe be the beginnings of a shift to just a retroflex r like English had? Or am I just crazy and hearing things?
best channel of all time
I like the Javier Milei afuera meme
In Dominican, Cuban, and Puerto Rican Spanish, like you said, mostly drop the s , as well as the d like in "lado" is mostly pronounced "lao".
As a Hebrew speaker I agree about everything except:
1. I don't think [ja'ad] will become a rising tone I think it will just stay like that for a long time and maybe eventually become [jǝ'ad] or even [jad]
2. Ayin and Hey are already pronounced the same as Alef (a glottal stop) for almost all young speakers and this glottal stop is already usually dropped (except in very careful speech like in the radio or when reading an old poem) so it's not really a prediction it already happened
3. Regressive voicing assimilation is already very popular for young speakers and (at least for me) when /ts/, /š/ and /χ/ become voiced they become/dz/, /ž/ and uvular fricative /r/ (I don't have IPA) and /dz/ and fricative /r/ are just heard as allophones of /ts/ and /χ/ (because Resh is pronounced as an approximant like you mentioned) I never heard the reverse assimilation you mentioned
4. /ž/ does exist in Hebrew but only in loanwords (except as I mentioned earlier as an allophone of /š/ when it gets assimilated to voiced consonants)
My predictions are:
1. Numbers will lose their gender distinctions (already happened for most speakers)
2. The accusative + definite article -את ה (et ha) will become -'ת (ta) (also already happened for most speakers)
3. A lot of new loanwords from English will replace both native words and older loanwords from Arabic and Yiddish ('hi' instead of 'shalom' and 'ahlan' for example)
4. The diminutive suffix '-ush' will become the normal diminutive instead of being only used by teenage girls and will replace the native Hebrew suffixes '-i' and '-on' and the Yiddish/Slavic suffix '-chik'
#2 is so true, to the point where in texting/online people have reanalyzed it as a prefix like ה or ב.
Also in younger speakers the first person singular pronoun שלי sheli often loses its first vowel to become shli and is sometimes also reanalyzed as a suffix. This is hilarious becuase שלי sheli was a replacement/evolution from the old/classical hebrew possessive suffix י- eg. Biblical בתי biti vs הבת שלי habat sheli for my daughter (the י- suffix still exists but it's rarer and more formal) in younger speakers it's often אבתשלי []abatshli. Maybe they'll eventually drop the shl too and then we'll come full circle back to the י- suffix lol.
I have read that French is more and more moving to a polysynthetic structure, as the smaller grammatical words are more and more in speech fusing and being pronounced as one word with nouns and verbs they modify. If people begin thinking about them as affixes French could become one of the most inflectional languages of Europe.
As a native speaker of Puerto Rican Spanish, I pronounce /s/ when at the end of a word before a vowel-initial word as [ʔ], so for me 'los arboles' is something like [loˈʔalβole(h)]. How do you think that could evolve?
For Thai, some people in urban area pronounce [x] as allophone of /kʰ/ and mix it with [kʰ] make phonetic status of /kʰ/ in urban area are [kʰ~x] while in rural area I never heard [x] at all. (note: Thai contrast aspiration such as /k/ vs /kʰ/.)
Two questions about this: would you say that they pronounce it sometimes as an affricate [kx]? And is there maybe also a pronounciation of /pʰ/ as [f] or [pf] and of /tʰ/ as [ts] or [s]? Asking as a German😅
@@danielwalter1467 Yes, I forgot about affricate allophone but that is rarer than posive or fricative but correct phonetic value lf that is [kxʰ] because [kx] will be percieved by listener as /k/ phonemes. (note: actually [ts] and [tʃ] in ipa standard sound record is aspirated instead of unaspirated I can confirm this since Thai contrast /tʃ~tɕ/ vs /tʃʰ~tɕʰ/) For second question, no way that gonna happend soon since Thai can't distinguish [pfʰ] vs [pf] vs [f] (/f/ phoneme) and [tsʰ] vs [ts] vs [s] (/s/ phoneme).
@@skyhistory6602 Thank you very much! I always find the parallels and differences between sound changes in different languages so interesting.
Soy de Maracaibo, Venezuela, con la enorme cantidad de gente que se fue, puedo asegurar que el acento de las personas ha cambiado un poco y se acerca mas a lo visto en este video, ya que generalmente socislizamos mas con personas mayores e indigenas que les cuesta hablar el castellano, ya sea por edad o ambiente, las S se estan eliminando o se pronuncian como una 'h', las X se pronuncian igual que las S 'h' y las R ya en algunos casos son una R similar al portugués, o bueno, una R rotica muy débil, como dato adicional, usamos el voseo reverencial, aunque de manera informal, como un español del medio evo
As a Dutch speaker, I don't expect the liaison thing to happen. In common speech in the most 'standard' dialects there is no n, even before a vowel.
Also note that French was able to lose its plural marker as the number could still reliably be determined from the article's pronunciation. A lack of this would probably have Dutch keep its schwa. A different note is that schwa is (in modern interpretations) phonemic as the unstressed counterpart of 'u' as in 'hut', just like the French schwa.
Depends. Because some dialects of Dutch pronounce the n in the infinitives. But they often drop the e between the consonants. like preparern, instead of preparere for prepareren.
Seeing that Dutch movement to French makes me wonder, are these things part of some common pattern or broader linguistic "style", or are they just a few unrelated changes that just happen to be shared with contemporary French?
Dropping h for example is also seen in Elfdalian in an Old Norse dialect still spoken there, located in Sweden. This isn't unusual. It also happened in Greek even in many Old Greek dialects already.
Well ur talking about American Spanish dialects not Castilian where s became þ(th) , to a degree in the American varieties some is becoming like h or silent before consinents at the beginning and after e at the end of a word but not as much ‘as’ or ‘os’ but es is becoming eth or eh, and even is is becoming i or ih. It depends on the vowel. And u already dropped ‘us’ at the end but not in the middle of words like gusta
As with my native language brazilian Portuguese, I'd say that this is definitely happening/going to happen generally in Brazil tʃi -> tʃ(ʲ) -> ʃ(ʲ) -> ʃ (as well as it's voiced counterpart), and u -> ʷ -> (maybe) ø, after a consonant at the end of a word is also happening, like in faço, fasu -> fasʷ.
Yeah, Brazilian Portuguese does actually have almost as much vowel reduction in the last syllable as European Portuguese when we're not trying to speak very loud, and yeah, /i/ becomes [ɪ̥] or [ʲ] while /u/ can be [ʊ̥], [ʷɪ̥̈], [ᵝɪ̥̈], [ˠʷɪ̥̈], [ˠᵝɪ̥̈], [ˠʷ], [ˠᵝ], [ˠ], [ʷ], [ᵝ] or just plain deletion.
But as for the /ti/ and /di/, as I said in another comment, I think you're hearing a weakly-articulated [tɕ] and [d̥ʑ̊], they're more palatalized and often devoiced but still an affricate. Verdade, *verdache (deleting the -e like someone from Portugal would) and *verdás (removing the yod *ajɕ) would NOT rhyme for me and I also have that weakening, [d̥ʑ̊], [ʃ] and [ɕ] respectively (yes, we theoretically could contrast [ʃ] and [ɕ] in Portugal and in Rio, guanache and *guanás also sound very different).
A good way to train yourself to notice the difference is pretend to be a carioca and say dentes. [ˈdẽ̞ɘ̯̃.tɕɕ̩] vs [ˈdẽ̞ɘ̯̃.tʃɕ̩], the first sounds like it could be dente but just saying dentttte, the second definitely sounds like dentes. The first dentes you could try weakly articulating for as far as you want but it still won't sound like denxes or denxe.
Segura aí que de chiado eu entendo 😂
About that long list of secondary articulations left by phantom vowels, I'd like to add [ˈɪ̃ɪ̠̯̃pʰʏ̥] ímpio, and quite frankly the vowel can be quite fricated, almost like [ˈɪ̃ɪ̠̯̃pɸ͡ç̩]. Carinho OTOH can be [kʰɐˈɾ̰ɪ̃ʏ̯̃].
The -im which people use for -inho (when e.g. doing eye dialect for mineiro and caipira speech) in most dialects sounds nothing like words that get -im by default, carmim for me would be [käɦᵊˈmɪ̃ɰ̟̃], the very opposite, they end like a more velar and unrounded version whole in -inho it turns into a thoroughly palatal diphthong but finishing with rounded or compressed off-glide.
Another one: equilíbrio [ek̟ʲᵊˈl̰ʲibɾᶣᵊ], two syllables. 🥴 Maybe there's something wrong with my mouth though because this is coming out as [ek̟ʲʰç̩ˈɬ̠ibɾʲʊ̥̈] or [ek̟ʲʰç̩ɬ̠ˈl̠ibɾʲʊ̥̈] right now. Maybe it's because I just brushed my teeth?
@@AnarchoPinkoEuroBr Yeah, although my accent is closer to a paulistano one than a carioca, I get it 💯. There's also the one in fatiando /faʲʃʲandʷ/ and also the new formation of the final l, that happens in Portugal, but now it's also happening in Brazil in bala /baɫᵊ/ or pelo /peᵊɫʷ.
I almost forgot about the u in chupar, for example /ʃʷpa/, as in "vai chupar isso?" /vaj ʃʷpa isʷ/.
@@TheRealGhebs I meant to say that this fatiando is definitely [fɐtɕɪ̥ˈɜn̪ˠᵝ], it's still an affricate
I wonder if my Canadian French will become a different language, the placement of our vowels already are centered while those of Parisian French are foward. We also have lots of abreviations, vowel lenghtenings, diphtongaisons, we pronounce the Ts and Ds with a z or s when followed by i and [ʏ] (Dzictature instead of dictature, tsire instead of tire, dzune instead of dune).
We also like to remove pronouns when between the noun and most prepositions, then lenghten the vowels of the prepositions (''Dans la maison'' to '' Dɑɑ̃n' maison,''. Also the ''Ai'' in maison is pronounced with the French nasal in, like ''Minzon'')
I think that's because due to English language contact. Also the diphthong /ai/ not /e/ pronounced sounds English to me. The same with dz and ts. Especially in dzune which reminded me dune (dyoon) in proper English. Because there is no i sound actually in dune in the French word. So it must be English influence. And a lot more things.
@@SchmulKrieger The English language most probably affected it, but to what extent, we do use English words and can pronounce them without problem, so all sounds the English language has we have them, excluding the þ and ð, we are bad at pronouncing those. We spoke Middle French 100 years after it was extinct in France and spoke the French of the king instead of the bourgeoisie, so our French branched out before the British conquest. We also had a massive Irish migration.
I think our pronounciation of dzüne is caused by our centered placement, dz is simply easier for us to pronounce with the i (ee) and ü, both foward vowels. We don't put a y in front of u like in English, the English u is "yoo". "Pyure", "yutilize", "dyoone", "myusic".
Concerning Arabic, pharyngealised consontants ص /sˤ/, ط /tˤ/ and ض /dˤ/ (though this pronunciation of the last one is not the classical one) can be found in all dialects as far as I know -except for Maltese which depharynsealise them-. Concerning ظ /ðˤ/, some dialects have preserved this pronunciation, others have just turned it into /zˤ/ or /dˤ/ (sometimes both of them exist in the same dialect for different words). At the end, I am not sure that the loss of pharangealisation is going to happen in the future, for these pharangealised consonants are being articulated without a problem (almost in all dialects) and they are even inserted in recently borrowed words instead of their non-pharangelised counterparts (for example Tarzan has become طَرَزَان /tˤarazaːn/). Hopefully this was hopeful albeit being a little bit superficial.
In rural parts of Uruguay, your prediction about spanish losing r has already happened lol
the gemination thing already happens in Venezuelan Spanish a lot (that's the dialect I speak)
Argentinian Spanish has the opposite and the vowel lengthens instead (VhC > V:C)
but there's still some level of aspiration in both cases
in Venezuelan Spanish I often notice the aspiration changes to the other end of the consonant if it's a stop (espejo [eˈpːʰeho])
interestingly in some Andalucian dialects the same thing happens but the consonant is short (espejo [eˈpʰeho]), tho it's most noticeable with /t/
the thing about intervocalic B D G disappearing and leaving behind a long vowel or diphthong, also already happens in Venezuelan and Chilean Spanish
in Venezuela the D disappears almost always, G disappears quite often but mostly next to /a/, and B disappears relatively frequently, and B and G often leave behind vowel colouring at least for me
also the thing you said about lavabo, the intervocalic fricatives mostly never disappear *before* a stressed vowel in Venezuelan Spanish, the loss only really happens *after* a stressed vowel
another thing where I could think long vowels could appear (and already kinda do in Venezuela) is in sequences of a vowel followed by B D G followed by R or L (for example negro [neɣɾo] > [ˈneˠːɾo], with vowel colouring)
every time I hear you, I realise that your speech is even more spanish influenced than I thought.
6:05 this is so true. E.g. the word for grandmother סבתא- Savta is pronounced ספתא.
אני חושב שזה יותר משהו שהאזור שלך עושה כי אני וכל מי שאני מכיר אומרים סבתא
bro most of the changes you said about Spanish are already happening in Andalusian lol
When I was younger I would pronounce agua as aua and igual as iual. And currently i barely pronounce ada and ado. I pronounce candado as candao and nada as naà but the d isn't completely gone its just, very light?
The prediction for Spanish could be accurate for Caribbean dialects, but not for Mexican Spanish.
Mexican Spanish is evolving in the opposite direction and the consonants are becoming more pronounced and the vowels are becoming weaker.
For example:
The word “explicar” (to explain)
In most dialects is /ehplikar/
But in Mexican Spanish is /eksplikar/ with a clear X sound.
This pronunciation is fixed due to hyper-correction and now words that should be pronounced with a simple S sound like “esplendor” (splendor) are being mispronounced as /eksplendor/.
Also, the vowels are becoming weaker, as phrases like “estoy aquí” (I’m here) are being pronounced like /stoi a’ki/, dropping the E at the beginning of the sentence
My prediction about German is that it'll be heavily influenced by English. Younger people often already literally just put English words between German ones and a lot of slang is heavily based on English.
Please make a video about how tones develop in different languages!
I’m Puerto Rican. I made a future Spanish conlang (based off my regional Puerto Rican dialect and it basically becomes worse than French somehow. Lenguaje /lengwahe/ becomes lema /lẽ/, which comes from an excessive simplification and just cutting out more than half its content. “Puertorriqueño” becomes Peloyçema /pelojtʃẽ/. It’s kinda insane.
You may be thinking of a prediction for Spanish (my experience) but it's already happening, and into the red boxes. I can hear it, and it is what confuses me. I got taught the traditional boxes, let's say, but at parties, and on the street, it's all red box stuff.
Lima, Perú.
6:24 About Hebrew, my sister studied linguistics, and she told me I, as well as many others, do pronounce ש as ʒ in לשבור, even though we don't have ʒ in the language.
Also 5:02 I've never heard anyone say יַעָד and רַעָש. We use ייעֶד /ji'ed/ for 'he designated', and for 'he made noise' רעש feels archaic (though I don't remember ever seeing it), we say הרעיש.
Thinking about it, both verbs we switch buildings (not sure what's the English for בנייני לשון lol), maybe it's actually done to avoid this aעa
@@MooImABunny sometimes in English we just say “binyán”, sometimes I call it the “pattern”
For Arabic I doubt that what you said would happen, only in Levantese Arabic and Egyptian Arabic. They're much more Volatile than dialects like Nejdi
Actually,romanian neuters becoming feminine isn't that far fetched,namely because it already happened once in the history of the language,let's take the latin word ostium,it was neuter in latin,so it's plural was ostia,when latin became proto romanian,like it the other varietaties of vulgar romance,the nominative neuter and the masculine accusative merged because they shared a ,,-um" ending,giving a word that was most likely something like *ustiu,with the plural of *ustia,the plural got reanalysed as the singular,and gave ușă,which is feminine,where as it's italian cognate,,uscio" is masculine,so it could be that the singular forms of nouns that pluralize to -e like orașe,avioane,etc. would change to orașă,avioană,etc.,though the -uri neuters are kinda unlikely to go through the same proscess
Creo que es difícil decir que los idiomas vayan a cambiar mucho considerando que la educación masiva los ha fosilizado por así decirlo. Ahora todo el mundo sabe leer y sabe que existe una forma "correcta" de hablar y las desviaciones de eso se consideran algo malo. Antes los idiomas mutaban porque eran prácticamente todos orales y no había forma de estandarizarlos, los distintos grupos de hablantes se aislaban unos de otros y así surgían nuevos idiomas. Ahora existen escuelas, diccionarios, academias de lengua, medios de comunicación masivos, etc., que refuerzan una forma "correcta" estándar.
Hablando propiamente del español lo que podría pasar es que ocurra como en el árabe donde existe una forma estándar escrita de prestigio y luego variedad de dialectos hablados no mutuamente inteligibles según el lugar y la clase social.
3:30 I notice that happening in my English pretty often where ever L is, if it wasn't a front consonant before it. I do hear Spanish very ofte in flea markets, but I can tell they don't notice that when trading, but when I try to speak and using Spanish, the L has a bad tendency to contaminate like my English. My Spanish isn't good, but able to make trading good enough. If I read Spanish, it's easy. Though I must avoid light l becoming a tapped r.