Superb sir.... Sach bta rhe humko machine bhut hard lgta tha... But ye vedio dkhne k bd easy lg rha Or intrest bhi aa rha machine m.... Thnk uh so much sir
Sir... Apne jo transfer karne ka trika batya aisa to kavi Maine socha he ni tha........ Dil se ekhe awaj aa rahi h aap lajabab ho sandar ho..... Or khatarnaak v.....
L1=a^2*L2 where a is turn ratio and L1, L2 are open circuit self inductances of primary and secondary windings respectively. Also, magnetizing inductances on primary and secondary sides: Lm1=k*L1; Lm2=k*L2 And leakage inductances on primary and secondary sides: Ls1=(1-k)*L1; Ls2=(1-k)*L2 Where k is coefficient of coupling.
That is actually a very good question. The answer to that is when a voltage is applied across a coil wound on a magnetic core, some voltage is dropped in the impedance of the coil. The remaining voltage appears across the coil which we call E1 (the primary side voltage). This E1 voltage causes a current I(m) to flow in the winding and this current creates magnetic flux. Thus I(m) is the magnetizing current. Also, this same E1 voltage also creates eddy currents I(c) which result in heat losses in the core. Thus magnetizing current and eddy current are both created by the same voltage E1 which is why they are shown in parallel in the transformer circuit.
Never in my life was i able to understand these concepts so clearly... 🙏Thankyou so much sir. You are a genius!
Pure life study Krna h kya?????🙄
Superb sir.... Sach bta rhe humko machine bhut hard lgta tha... But ye vedio dkhne k bd easy lg rha Or intrest bhi aa rha machine m.... Thnk uh so much sir
GOD OF MACHINE IS THE PERFECT NAME to MR.PANKAJ SHUKLA SIR
Apne to sir machin ko pura easy bna diya
Thank you so much sir g👌👌👌
Sir... Apne jo transfer karne ka trika batya aisa to kavi Maine socha he ni tha........ Dil se ekhe awaj aa rahi h aap lajabab ho sandar ho..... Or khatarnaak v.....
gajaab guruji....thanxx for your priceless efforts
Thank you very much sir for improving my knowledge
I am a die hard fan of you sir
Best content ever
Thanks a lot...
superb sir..
Nice explanation sir
Thankyou very very very very...... Much sir
Excellent Explanation Sir.
Thank you sir
God of Machine
very good video
Very usefull sir
Thank you soo much sir 💙
superb sir
good job sir
Super..
Superb sir ....
Sir when self inductance is provided in the question? How to proceed with referring? By converting them into ohmic values?
L1=a^2*L2
where a is turn ratio and L1, L2 are open circuit self inductances of primary and secondary windings respectively.
Also, magnetizing inductances on primary and secondary sides:
Lm1=k*L1; Lm2=k*L2
And leakage inductances on primary and secondary sides:
Ls1=(1-k)*L1; Ls2=(1-k)*L2
Where k is coefficient of coupling.
Tell me about full course for GATE sir in pandrive
nice explanation
In some standard books the transformation ratio is notated as K and it N2/N1
Pahle aapko turn ratio aur transformation ratio m difference samjhna hoga...
Why keep resistance and inductance kee in parallel in equivalent ckt??
Because io (i not) is vector sum of iw and im
That is actually a very good question. The answer to that is when a voltage is applied across a coil wound on a magnetic core, some voltage is dropped in the impedance of the coil. The remaining voltage appears across the coil which we call E1 (the primary side voltage).
This E1 voltage causes a current I(m) to flow in the winding and this current creates magnetic flux. Thus I(m) is the magnetizing current.
Also, this same E1 voltage also creates eddy currents I(c) which result in heat losses in the core.
Thus magnetizing current and eddy current are both created by the same voltage E1 which is why they are shown in parallel in the transformer circuit.
What will be I1 after refferred to L.V side in approximate equivalent ckt??? Please ans
I1'=a*I1
sir, what is the difference between the equivalent circuit & nominal circuit?
pu ckt
Why Ro and Xo not present in secondary side
Core to common hai na...
Aap phasor diagram to chor rahe he wahi important he
can someone add english subtitles plz
korek
why do we put bar above I E and V
To represent the quantities in phasor.
Very talented sir
Transfer from hv to lv that'd y
BECAUSE THEY ARE VECTORS
to the people who disliked are u from an IIT or ur private institution teaches better ?😂😂😂.... i assume none 😑
Nice explanation sir