I still don't get the difference between inflection and derivation from the examples you used. What's the key difference? It sounded like it was whether it changed the word as opposed to adding onto the word. Then the next side's examples destroys that rule.
Derivational processes are word-formation processes, so you add a derivational affix to an existing word and you get another word with another meaning (helpful + {un} --> unhelpful, the meaning being the opposite of the base). Inflection doesn't do all that, it just adds grammatical information (do + {third-person S} --> does). Hope this helps.
Derivational Morphemes are affixes that changes the grammatical category or Parts of speech when added or attach to an existing word. Let's say for example, the noun "beauty", when you add the Derivational Morpheme "Ful" at the end of the word, it changes into an adjective "beautiful". While inflectional morphemes are group of letters that are added to an existing word, however it does not changes the grammatical category or parts of speech. Let's say for example, the regular noun "carrot", when you add inflectional morphemes "s" at the end of the word, it only indicate the plural form of the noun carrot. (noun remain noun). ㅋㅋㅋㅋㅋ ❤
It's a tricky case. According to the etymology of the word, the original root is the Old English word "mæs", to which {a-} was added as a prefix. So by the diachronic perspective, you could argue it's three morphs: {a}{maze}{ing}. However, the etymology also states that the modern lexeme "to amaze" is a back-formation of "amazed", which means you could say it's bimorphic that way. Personally, I think that's nonsense. I think the first option is more likely, probably because your lecturer/instructor wants you to realise that through processes of derivation, words like "maze" can become "amazing" since {a} is a derivational prefix (to alight, to arise, to awake, ashamed).
Yeah it was quite a confusion over the class.I thought that amaze-ing was more appropriate because a-maze-ing went out of context and apparently didn't made sense to me but being coming from "to amaze" as you said major lexeme (I'm a beginner, basic linguistics 😂 )Still I'm curious what would be more preferred by linguistics or is /appropriate accepted any way you can say,if you go by the rules?
@@waniyazoha9293 The honest answer is: There are probably as many different opinions as there are linguists. So I'd say there's no one correct view, but different ways to look at it. Some linguists prefer to trace a word back into its absolute past; others prefer to regard those things as roots which cannot be split further within the semantic system of the current language (e.g. "health" obviously contains the morphs {heal} and {th}, but semantically, health is not a noun version of "to heal", but an entirely different concept nowadays. So you could argue that you couldn't split it any further today because it's modern meaning is the result of other processes). The process of morphological fossilation, which prefers language structures that aren't productive any more, doesn't make it all easier. So yeah... depends on what makes more sense to you. ;)
Which types of word formation are the following words Automation=automate =? Humid=humidifier= ? Typographical error=typo=? Love seat =loveseat=? Please answer
@@Phloneme thank you so much. I had mentioned it as derivation. it means I was right 😊 Thanks again this lesson was really helpful for me. keep it up 👍
Big thanks! This was awesome, suddenly I feel really confident about the exam I'm taking tomorrow!
Same XD
I think you just saved my life.... and I finally got the hang of it!
Due to the Coronavirus thing students have to stay at home and teachers have to teach students somehow. Your video is really helpful. Thank you.
Thank you so much dor this lesson! Everything seems clear now. Greetings from Poland :D
So interesting. Could you give us books recommendation?
I still don't get the difference between inflection and derivation from the examples you used.
What's the key difference?
It sounded like it was whether it changed the word as opposed to adding onto the word.
Then the next side's examples destroys that rule.
Derivational processes are word-formation processes, so you add a derivational affix to an existing word and you get another word with another meaning (helpful + {un} --> unhelpful, the meaning being the opposite of the base).
Inflection doesn't do all that, it just adds grammatical information (do + {third-person S} --> does). Hope this helps.
Derivational Morphemes are affixes that changes the grammatical category or Parts of speech when added or attach to an existing word. Let's say for example, the noun "beauty", when you add the Derivational Morpheme "Ful" at the end of the word, it changes into an adjective "beautiful".
While inflectional morphemes are group of letters that are added to an existing word, however it does not changes the grammatical category or parts of speech. Let's say for example, the regular noun "carrot", when you add inflectional morphemes "s" at the end of the word, it only indicate the plural form of the noun carrot. (noun remain noun).
ㅋㅋㅋㅋㅋ ❤
It adds to our knowledge.
-ly is an inflection? It seems to be a derivational suffix.
It's both
When it affect grammar it's inflection
When it affect lexicon its direction
@@ahmedabogazalah8827 Thanks
@Phloneme
Can somebody help me here with morphology of word "Amazing"? Is it a bimorphic or trimorphic word? With explanation please.
It's a tricky case. According to the etymology of the word, the original root is the Old English word "mæs", to which {a-} was added as a prefix. So by the diachronic perspective, you could argue it's three morphs: {a}{maze}{ing}. However, the etymology also states that the modern lexeme "to amaze" is a back-formation of "amazed", which means you could say it's bimorphic that way. Personally, I think that's nonsense.
I think the first option is more likely, probably because your lecturer/instructor wants you to realise that through processes of derivation, words like "maze" can become "amazing" since {a} is a derivational prefix (to alight, to arise, to awake, ashamed).
Yeah it was quite a confusion over the class.I thought that amaze-ing was more appropriate because a-maze-ing went out of context and apparently didn't made sense to me but being coming from "to amaze" as you said major lexeme (I'm a beginner, basic linguistics 😂 )Still I'm curious what would be more preferred by linguistics or is /appropriate accepted any way you can say,if you go by the rules?
@@waniyazoha9293 The honest answer is: There are probably as many different opinions as there are linguists. So I'd say there's no one correct view, but different ways to look at it. Some linguists prefer to trace a word back into its absolute past; others prefer to regard those things as roots which cannot be split further within the semantic system of the current language (e.g. "health" obviously contains the morphs {heal} and {th}, but semantically, health is not a noun version of "to heal", but an entirely different concept nowadays. So you could argue that you couldn't split it any further today because it's modern meaning is the result of other processes). The process of morphological fossilation, which prefers language structures that aren't productive any more, doesn't make it all easier. So yeah... depends on what makes more sense to you. ;)
I definitely got my answer.
Thankyou so much for your time.Really helped me get over the confusion 💕😊
very clarifying, thanks a lot!
Which types of word formation are the following words
Automation=automate =?
Humid=humidifier= ?
Typographical error=typo=?
Love seat =loveseat=?
Please answer
Haha, sorry, but I'm not going to do your homework. :D
@@Phloneme it's an assignment 😓
.just tell of Humid=humidifier
Plzzzz
@@amnakhan8102 {{humid}+{ify}}+{er} --> it's derivation.
@@Phloneme thank you so much. I had mentioned it as derivation. it means I was right 😊
Thanks again this lesson was really helpful for me. keep it up 👍
thank you so much.
Thankk youu forrr thiss!!!
thank you ,it well explained
Please upload
amazing
great!
-ly is a derivational suffix not an inflectional. And where are the rest of the word formation processes!
why is -ly not an inflectional?
@@helensun4593 -ly changes the part of speech category of the word
Good video. 👍🏿
amaizing
nice explenation 💕
Fantastic lecture
This video actually made me smile while doing research for an assignment, which has never happened (ever). Thanks :)
(c h u n d e r b o l t )
Thank you very much :D
Really helpful
Oh, I love you
informative content
Word formation and back formation are saaame !!??
The video is super helpful; however, I would avoid the unnecessary jokes and silly comments
Thx
Weird accent but really helpful video :D
Stephan W .. his RP accent is almost spot on .. but i believe hes not a native
(Y) Great Thnx
ok
Add arbic translate
hehehehe... human more finite born than home grown... now dont blow a fuze ...words do this to amuse...