Hi mate. I'm a 38 year old and loving watching you. Can I ask if you have any suggestion where to begin with my 3 yo son with math? I'm terrible at math! So really would love start him young :) thank you for what you have done. It's amazing.
Hi Mr Woo I love math and everyone of my friends say why do you love math and i can just see the fun and the excitment in math and honsetly i look up to you i see you nearly every day but always too scared to come up annd say hi
It is possible because it is the value of an ANTIDERIVATIVE of a Probability Density Funtion, it's NOT the value of a Probability Density Function itself.
Nicolas Anese Even if it is the anti-derivative, how can it be negative? That would imply that the probability density function itself is negative on some domain.
@@nicolasanese6499 The antiderivative of the PDF is essentialy the cummulative function, which should approach 1 as x goes to infinity. There is also a big issue, because in continuous random variables we should not have P(X=x) because it would always be 0.
Hi mate.
I'm a 38 year old and loving watching you. Can I ask if you have any suggestion where to begin with my 3 yo son with math? I'm terrible at math! So really would love start him young :) thank you for what you have done. It's amazing.
Addition
No he isn’t he just loves to watch Eddie woo
@@Kamera_Photograpy huh?
go to khanacademy
Start with the integration of the Gaussian function
Thanks for your explanation..
lim f(x -> infinity) = 0 , but lim F(x -> infinity) = 1
Hi Mr Woo
I love math and everyone of my friends say why do you love math and i can just see the fun and the excitment in math and honsetly i look up to you i see you nearly every day but always too scared to come up annd say hi
If the two ways give the same answer, then
0 - F(65) = 1 - F(65) + F(50) or
F(50) = -1
How is this possible?
It is possible because it is the value of an ANTIDERIVATIVE of a Probability Density Funtion, it's NOT the value of a Probability Density Function itself.
Nicolas Anese Even if it is the anti-derivative, how can it be negative? That would imply that the probability density function itself is negative on some domain.
@@nicolasanese6499 The antiderivative of the PDF is essentialy the cummulative function, which should approach 1 as x goes to infinity. There is also a big issue, because in continuous random variables we should not have P(X=x) because it would always be 0.
Sir do you read these comments.?
Why any number to power 0 is equals to 1 @eddie woo
Because 1 === a ^ b / a ^ b === a ^ (b - b) === a ^ 0.
thats just a rule in maths, I'm not sure the explanation but just know anything to the power of 0 is equal to 1
6 ÷ 2(2+1) = 1
6 ÷ 2(2+1) = 9
What do you think...
I think that you miscalculated the first solution.
6 ÷ 2(2+1) = 1
6 ÷ 2(2+1) = 9
What do you think...
6 ÷ 2(2+1) = 1
6 ÷ 2(2+1) = 9
What do you think...
6 ÷ 2(2+1) = 1
6 ÷ 2(2+1) = 9
What do you think...