The “hem” of Jesus’ garment is actually called “tzitzit” and was required to be worn (Numbers 15:38-39). The hem or tassels were part of a garment called “kanaph” which is also known as “wings”. It’s a fulfillment of Malachi 4:2, “But for you who fear my name, the sun of righteousness will rise with healing in its wings. You shall go out leaping like calves from the stall"
Ah, I saw this after I essentially posted the same thing. I wrote about this in my book, "Where Virtue Flows," and even made the connection to Malachi. Thanks for sharing!
As a former KJVO, I now understand that people in our days need a word that immediately conveys the message rather than make a cognitive process instantly to understand the message. Not many have that capacity to do a quick process, especially when sharing with unbelievers or new Christian.
Thank you, Mark for your persistence in working to find true meaning in the world around you and especially during your study. Your work is a blessing. Merry Christmas.
Similarly, I would had said “life-force”, but “power” is the idea i was thinking of. (Lol- just saying for Dr Ward’s research because he asked us to pause the vid and do this) .
I'm not sure if it's a false friend, but the word "hem" in the story does NOT mean "a border of a cloth article doubled back and stitched down" as our modern definition suggests, but refers specifically to the fringe or tassel on the corners of Jesus' cloak. That is, he wore tzitzit on his garments like other observant Jews of his day. This is often overlooked, as most movies or depictions only put tassels on the supersilious Pharisees. Our misunderstanding of words paints a different picture in our heads as we read the text.
I am just finishing up watching this as my wife is sleeping. She has kidney disease and I am only bringing this up because I heard you mention that your wife suffers from pain as well. Brother, I am with you. When there's nothing you can do as a man, sometimes the thoughts get strange, like, LORD!! why not me!? (
I have learned much from others who've gone through much worse pain and suffering than I have. Tim Keller is one of those: www.amazon.com/dp/1594634408?tag=3755-20.
Can't wait till your next video. Always a joy to hear your reasoning on point. You have so many abundant gifts. This Sunday as Choir Director at Church was yet another pleasure to see you in your element and the Spirit used you to bless all of us...Good Job! I am so proud of you & your family.
99!! Yes! This is such a helpful resource for everyone. It’s valuable to KJV-onlyists (for obvious reasons) and most CT people aren’t anti-KJV and still revere the KJV, so it’s essentially a helpful list of words for everyone.
Great video as always Mark. Thank you for all the work you have done on this topic and your kind spirit. I have benefited greatly from your work on King James readability. This one I already knew but only because I had already researched it in reading the Canterbury Tales "Of which vertu engendred is the flour".
@@wardonwords Mark this is Not hard to understand.... if we grasp the "literal" definition of virtue... we will see that this has to do with "power"... Now ....... can we Really say that Jesus lost power here..?.. NO.. I don't think so... and so we must assume.. that even though this virtue/power went out of Jesus.. it did NOT deplete.. Jesus virtue/power... we cannot consider "virtue".. to be like a battery on our Iphone.. where the more we use it the more its power depletes... and so.. even though Jesus.. sensed virtue departing from Him.. He in No way sensed that He Himself had any less virtue.. because of it.. I would have to say.. that the best definition of this "virtue".. would be "enablement".. or ability... what this woman who touched Jesus garment gained...was the ability to be healed... which before this.. she could not ....and had not... been capable of for many many years... the more important question is... did Jesus know this woman was going to touch His garment BEFORE this actually happened...? we can argue and say that of course Jesus knew who touched His garment before and after it happened since He is God.. yet I believe this is/was one of those things that was reserved for ONLY the Father in Heaven to know... I have counted 3 things that if Jesus was NOT lying that Jesus was NOT privy to before they happened... 1)... the time of the hour when the Father will send Jesus back to earth.. 2).. the event of this woman being healed of her illness before it happened 3)...(and this one is debatable).. what reason did Jesus have to ask His Father in the Garden of Gethsemane if there be any way to remove this cup from Him...?.. was Jesus hoping the Father would change His mind.?. did Jesus Not know that God the Father would Not change His plans for Jesus...?..
Beginning of the video still. Only understand it as Power because of modern translations. Don't know how it could have had the same meaning. Time to learn
Wow! Great work. From context, I knew virtue was His power, but you explained it so well I now know WHY. And your love and understanding for your wife shows through!
I'm going to miss these false friend videos. Back In Bible college, I was challenged to take the KJV only lists of verses that "changed God's Word" in the NKJV and check them against the Greek/Hebrew. What I found was that all of them were false friends tripping up the KJVO makers of such lists, even though I didn't use the term "false friend" at that time. Years later, I discovered when preaching from my KJV that I often spent unnecessary time in the sermon explaining false friends and phrases that are simply unnatural or awkward to modern English speakers. I really appreciate Mark's efforts in these videos.
100 false friends - it's fantastic! I am thoroughly impressed and pleased at the calibre of your education over the long haul You have consistently produced top shelf - S tier quality videos - Thank you Mark - you inspire me to continue to press on to hear those words "well done - my good and faithful; servant"
@@wardonwords I am Not an expert on the definitions of "virtue".... but I found this from the internet... "There are 31 meanings listed in OED's entry for the noun virtue, ten of which are labelled obsolete." so I guess we can pretty much determine from any one of the VALID.. definitions today...what these verses really mean.. we would have to be able to get inside the KJV translator's heads to find out what they were "going for" with their choice of that word... BUT.. at least with the KJV we know we are dealing with the mindset of individuals.. from 400 + years ago... there is NO excuse for the translators from THIS era.. to translate a word.. incorrectly.. they have their PhD's and all their doctorates of think-ology... I would hope that these translators in our day.. could choose the proper word usage... but even they DON'T.. here is an analogy...... Mark.... I have a vehicle that is 25 years old... I expect that vehicle to have mechanical issues..(it does)... I can accept that... it's OLD.. If I were to trade that vehicle in and get a NEW vehicle... should I expect the same mechanical issues with it...?.. it IS kind of silly isn't it.? to trade off.. an Old "bucket of bolts".. for a New "bucket of bolts..? but that is what is wrong today... for all their hype and glamor... all I am getting in an updated or more modern bible translation is newer mistranslations of even different words..
As a kjv preferred, it’s a crime to subject children to kjvo. After reading through the bible many times in modern translations and having access to them, I really appreciate the KJ but my kids are going to start with the CSB and the NKJV and the ESV. I think for memory I’ll do a mix of KJV and NKJV as that is what I’m doing whole book memory with and I really enjoy it. When they’re older they can use whatever they want.
I think having been raised in a family that used the KJV, it was the familiarity with the stories. But once I began reading the Bible as my own, I really had a hard time understanding the text. It wasn’t till I was in college that I bought a Ryrie study bible in the Nasb that I understood the text. Thank you Mark- for all the talk of bible translations, it is so important that we , as Christians understand that with such an abundance, we have so many people who are still disengaged from the Bible.
Paused the video at 3:13 I’m going to say virtue means power for two reasons. 1. I remember reading this passage in modern versions of the Bible where it says power came out of Jesus. 2. Because in Thomistic philosophy when speaking of Being and God, some people might say everything exists or pre-exists “virtually” in the divine essence, i.e. God has the power and foreknowledge to bring it about. And that had led me to learn virtue comes from the word vir meaning man/male in Latin, and it makes sense because a virtue someone has is a power or capability or strength he has to do something good with ease. Hence its connection to “manliness” and “power”.
1 Cor 7:3 "Let the husband render unto the wife due benevolence: and likewise also the wife unto the husband." I think benevolence is a false friend here.
This is a word I gathered the definition of from the context. Obviously, Jesus did not decline in moral values, so I assumed that it meant the function of healing. As you put it, healing "power". I never searched for "false friends", and still don't, but when I first deconstructed, I was KJO and always kept a Strongs Concordance and a dictionary with archaic words, which was fairly big. I looked up a lot of words to understand their meaning, and I looked at all the alternative translations of the word in the KJV through the concordance. I found a lot of places in the KJV where the different translation word was a better fit for the one in the verse I was checking. This would have been one of those cases. Some verses just make better sense when read with the other translated word elsewhere.
We’re talking about English. For decades our culture has become more secularized and the average person doesn’t hear references to the KJV everyday as once was the case. The language has become foreign. Just watch a 1940’s movie for an example of language change and chances are one won’t understand a lot of the 1940’s lingo. (lol)
I think the modern English phrase, "by virtue of", still flirts with the idea of power. We use it to mean, "because of", which has that idea of potential or driving force lurking around.
Mark, Merry Christmas to you and yours !!! I was studying the conversion of the thief on the cross, and in Matthew's account ch. 27 vs. 44, (KJV) it states "...cast the same in his teeth." I immediately had to go to different translations in order to understand this. Was this a figure of speech at some time in the past? Thank you so much for everything you do!! Power to the Plowboy ✊️😂
The Greek says nothing of the sort; this is surely an idiom, and a highly (and unnecessarily) functional/dynamic translation. The Greek has no casting and no teeth. It's just the word for "reviling."
There is an active meaning of "virtue" that does not mean "excellence in moral quality", which remains in the phrase "by virtue of" (or "in virtue of"). Similarly, Merriam Webster notes (admittedly, definition # 5 in their online dictionary) that virtue can mean "a capacity to act" (syn. with "potency"). So, while it is correct to say that the first meaning that will come to the head of a modern native speaker of English hearing the word "virtue" has to do with moral excellence, it is too much to say that the sense of "power" is altogether missing from modern use.
I can't see KJV Only existing in, say, 100 years from now. The English language seems to be changing too rapidly for the English of the KJV (c. 1769) to be intelligible in 100 years. I mean, I happen to think it's already largely unintelligible to the average American reader, but I am just one person, so what do I know. If there's a relatively reliable predictor for how rapidly, for example, American English is changing, then perhaps we can better pinpoint the tipping point when the KJV will no longer be intelligible to the majority of average American readers. I know KJV Onlyism exists all over the world, but its core seems to be the US. In the UK and the British Commonwealth in general, my impression is KJV Only is a very minority position (most evangelicals in the UK and British Commonwealth in general seem to use the NIV).
Mark 5.30 Coverdale: And forth with Iesus felt in himself the power that was gone out of him, and turned him aboute amoge the people, and sayde: Who hath touched my clothes?
I DEARLY wish I could get the Bishop's Bible in Logos; and it only now occurs to me that I should have been including Coverdale in all my comparison work up till now.
@@wardonwords It's odd that it's missing, especially since Logos has a book *about* the making of the Bishops' Bible: www.logos.com/product/174258/the-day-after-domesday-the-making-of-the-bishops-bible
I look at virtue as goodness. So there was goodness that went out from Jesus. God does bless us through Jesus Christ, spiritually (Ephesians 1:3). The healing was physical but also demonstrated the man Jesus is God as well.
@markwardonwords Most KJV Bibles I've seen have a reference section that explains strange words like this. My question is: if each KJV Bible explains the modern meaning to every false friend, would you say that there would be no reason to update the KJV? Thank you for your time and work on the channel. I appreciate it.
This is a valid question. First, however, I question the premise: it is not my experience that most KJV editions have such helps. If they did, that would indeed be a major step. But I always say: think of the many circumstances in which those notes don't and can't help, such as Scripture memory cards and off-the-cuff quotations and evangelistic encounters-even church signs. If it's okay to explain the words, then it needs to be okay to revise them. Often enough, that just means taking the main word used in the explanation and putting it in the text. Why would that be wrong? Does that make sense?
The closest I can think of a modern use of virtue in a similar sense as it is used in the king James would be virtuosity or virtuoso which im guessing has some shared origin/etymology.
Having paused the video, I would say that virtue in this context is power. But I have an unfair advantage - I've been using modern translations (primarily the 1995 NASB and the LSB, but not eschewing others) for decades now. 🙂 And having unpaused it, I got a surprise. Perhaps it was inevitable, since I don't know Greek, just a few words, but I'd forgotten about *dunamis.* 🙂
I'm going to assume that virtue means "strength." I know that "power" is a common rendering in these passages, and I wonder if our contemporary use of "virtue" is based on a fundamental meaning of "strength of character," or something similar.
Obligatory “pause the video and tell me”: I would think virtue coming out of Jesus is meaning the positive qualities, via the Holy Spirit, flowed out of Jesus and into the person who touched him.
The Vulgate is to blame?!? I know too little about this translation to make a strong statement, but I was under the impression that it was made so the scripture could be in the vulgar (as in common) tongue. Their translation choices reflects their times as they should. So let’s not use the term “blame,” but “source.” It explains the reason.
Careful Mark, noticing that the dominion mandate is still effectual could get you into trouble, my friend! :-) Next thing you know, you'll start singing all the verses of "Joy to the World" and you know where that will lead...
Mark, I had the thought while watching but don't know how to research it myself. Is it possible that this meaning of virtue is what's intended in the phrase "patience is a virtue"? From what I can tell, our sense of the phrase comes from Piers Plowman in 1360, which is around when this meaning was in use. Idk if this would change anything, just a curious though experiment haha
I puzzled over this (and world) some time ago and came to the conclusion it's a combination of the Vulgate, and Latin translations of Aristotle and St. Dionysius, meaning that they translated neoplatonism into the Bible. So many KJV translation issues is a direct result of the Vulgate.
Yes, sometimes I wonder if a given word really ever meant in English what early English translators use it to mean-or if they were just transliterating the "KJV" of their day, the Vulgate. But in this case, the OED has unearthed citations that make it look as though "virtue" really was used outside of Bible translation to mean "divine power."
@@wardonwords Oh I believe it was a regular word. I just think those three bodies of literature had an outsize impact on English through Latin and French that it made it into vernacular. It's like how the Latin Ovid transformed English through Shakespeare. And I hope you have a merry Christmas, as I probably wont' see a new video between now and then :)
@@kainech YES. I think you are right. The Vulgate and the Norman invasion both had major impacts. (And the Norman invasion wasn't the only time French came into England, as I recall.)
Hi, Mark! May I ask you a question? Isn't experience in Romans 5:4 a false friend? The EOD put it as "The action of putting to the test; trial" - They quote Wycliff translation in Genesis 42:15.
@@wardonwords I start reading the 1984 NIV and I have a great surprise. There is a lot of new words to learn. I love the David Suchet audio version. God bless you, brother!
I belive virtue is used this way at some point in The Lord of the Rings! I don't have a quote at hand, but I believe some supernatural quality of the elves is referred to as a virtue.
I did not do so-or not on purpose! Are you sure those comments were on this video? I delete comments only when they're truly vile, and I don't remember you doing that.
I must admit, though I heavily used and memorized the KJV for the first 17 years of my life, I can't recall what I thought when I read "virtue" has gone from Jesus. By the time I critically recieved my first copy of the New World Translation, I would have read it as "power". Yes, it would have been quite confusing reading "virtue" though. Sad to see #100 completing the series.
Coming from a Word of Faith perspective, the word "virtue" in the Gospels is defined as "moral energy". (Word of faith folks are not exactly academically rigorous.) The word is understood to mean both the power (which healed the woman) and also the goodness of God. This ties to the fact that the faith of the woman touching the hem of Jesus' garment drew upon a reward from God (see Heb. 11:6 KJV). Thus, "virtue" is an exactly correct and current word to use. Moral goodness is not just a passive thing, it is actually a spiritual thing, like a spiritual substance. That's why Jesus could perceive it being drawn upon by the woman in the throng. And that's why attacking this correct word as "archaic and incomprehensible", "a mere forced variation of wording in translation" and defined by "going to the Greek today" is misguided. Even in Latin, the word "virtus" means things like "moral excellence" and was used in Roman times to mean a force for "good deeds" or accomplishments. Sticking with the English in studying Scripture alone and secondarily in the literal etymology of the word blasts away the entire doubtful, dismissive questioning of the exactly correct word "virtue".
I do find your video's interesting in that you show why you think the words used in the KJV are no longer understood today. But there are those who read the KJV and I am one of them that would not define the word virtue in the context with the woman with the issue of blood as power coming out of Jesus. I would define the issue in her as being separated from the community due to the Mosaic law and the virtue hear i would view it as the goodness of God coming out of Jesus. Though I can understand why you would view it as power instead of what it actually is. What it actually is is the Spirit of God countering the activity of a devil.
For better understanding read His Word in parallel (blue letter bible): KJB on left side, some Critical bible on right side. The Holy Spirit will help you rightly divide.
Most of these "false friends" you describe are not difficult, only to the scholars I guess. Many words in the Bible have multiple applications and can be understood based on how they are used. Virtue here obviously means power.
I misunderstood this when I was not even close to being a scholar. I don’t consider myself a scholar now. Did I do something wrong as a child to misunderstand this word?
Mr. Ward, your propensity to discredit the KJB is on display once again. The word "virtue" means "strength." That is the root meaning of the word in most English dictionaries. Even the Greek word translated "virtue" in Mark 5:30 is dunamis which means "strength" or "power." It says in Ruth 3:11 that Boaz called Ruth a"virtuous woman." The Hebrew here is "chayil" which means "strength." (UA-cam does not allow italics or words other than English.) The word "virtue" or "virtuous" in the KJV is consistent with the translation. When you try to force the "modern" English definitions to a biblical word you will find confusion. You seem to have a unique ability to spread confusion about the words of God.
My friend, I have three questions: 1. Why did the OED mark that sense of "virtue" as archaic? 2. Are there any archaic words in the KJV? 3. Is it discrediting the KJV to say that some KJV words are archaic? Please give me serious answers. You write well; I know you can think clearly. Please answer my questions straightforwardly.
"When you try to force the "modern" English definitions to a biblical word you will find confusion." That's exactly the point he's been making for years now. It's easy enough to say that a dictionary will give "strength" as the "root meaning of the word," but how many people are going to be consulting a dictionary for the word "virtue" instead of assuming the most prominent usage of the word? And in the time it took them to seek out an obscure definition, they could've instead been reflecting upon the virtue being expressed in the narrative itself. A word study of an _English_ word takes up time that could be spent on more productive study.
@@wardonwords Merry Christmas, my friend. Question 1: the OED marks a lot of words archaic but they can still be used with confidence. Question 2: Yes, the KJV has archaic words but with a little effort, the word is usually defined in the context. Question 3: Yes, you discredit the KJV by correcting the "archaic" words and suggesting the translators of the KJV did wrong in using certain words. I suppose the following evidence could be said that even the "new" translations have archaic words. The following examples are notexhaustive. Example: NIV has "abashed (Isa. 24:23), "aghast" (Isa. 13:8), "alcove" (Ezek. 40:13), "parapet" (Deut. 22:8), "poultice" (2 Kings 20:7), "qualm" (Jude 12), et al. The ESV has some: "dissipation" (Luke 21:34), "impudence" (Luke 11:8), "let it out" (Luke 20:9). These are not exhaustive, simply examples that verify archaic words can be used unless a textual critic says they are wrong. One of the major problems I have with the "new" translations is their doctrine and contradictions. Example from the Legacy Standard Bible (LSB): compare 2 Samuel 5:20-21 and 1 Chronicles 14:11-12. These two passages are the same events. In one (2 Samuel 5) David's army defeated the army of the Philistines and "struck them down" (vs. 20). Then in vs. 21, "David and his men carried the idols them away" (the idols). Reading 1 Chronicles 14 the same events took place and "David said the word, and they were burned with fire." Check these two passages in the KJV and see the difference. I know this is not the total answer you wanted but at least the difference between the KJV and some of the "new" translations is obvious. Another problem with "new" translations is their doctrine of "lordship salvation." Compare John 3:36 in the KJV with what the LSB says (also: ESV, NASV95). The KJV says in John 3:36, "He that believeth on the Son hath everlasting life: and he that believeth not the Son shall not see life. . ." The LSV says in John 3:36, "He who believes in the Son has eternal life; but he who does not obey the Son will not see life. . ." The Greek word in the text of John 3:36 translated "believeth not" (KJV) is "apeitheo" which means "disobey," yet, BDAG, Friberg, and Gingrich all suggest that concerning the Gospel it means "refuse to believe" (Friberg). The word BDAG indicates it has the connotation of "disbelief" with the Greek word "apeitheo" vs. "apeitheia." It is not both ways. When one lets the Greek determine their belief they may run into some difficulties (or sometimes bad doctrine). Some things could be said about the state of the Greek NT. It is in a state of disarray and changes every time the "Greek MSS" evidence demonstrates that some of the decisions made in the "apparatus" of the USB and NA were wrong or based on "speculation" and not valid MSS evidence. I am not a Reformed believer, but a "grace" believer. We are saved by grace through faith (Eph. 2:8-10, KJV). Our obedience has nothing to do with salvation, getting it or losing it according to Eph. 2:9, "Not of works, lest any man should boast" (KJV, ESV, NKJV, NIV, NASB95).Interestingly, the LSB has similar wording for Eph. 2:9, yet says in John 3:36 (LSB) ". . .he who does not obey the Son will not see life." This is a contradiction concerning an important matter, "eternal life." I suppose that the LSB would say that a person who does not obey, loses his salvation if he does not obey. Have a good day.
@@jerryrockwell9499 I want to stay on the matters I raised. Question 1: If the OED marks a word as archaic, it cannot be used with confidence. That's precisely what you cannot do. People will either not know the word or will not know the sense of the word that you intend. Question 2: Yes, archaic words are often defined in context in the KJV-but not always, and sometimes it takes real knowledge to realize what's going on. Question 3: Where have I suggested that the KJV translators did wrong in using certain words? I believe I did this once, quite purposefully, in one video on an obscure metaphor in Job 17:6. This is no more than the KJV translators themselves did in their preface. I have stated over and over and over and over and over that the false friends are not errors. They were perfectly fine choices in 1611.nslators themselves did in their preface.
Belated merry Christmas. I hope your time with family, in the presence of the Lord, was meaningful in every way. Peace in Jesus.
The “hem” of Jesus’ garment is actually called “tzitzit” and was required to be worn (Numbers 15:38-39). The hem or tassels were part of a garment called “kanaph” which is also known as “wings”. It’s a fulfillment of Malachi 4:2, “But for you who fear my name, the sun of righteousness will rise with healing in its wings. You shall go out leaping like calves from the stall"
Ah, I saw this after I essentially posted the same thing. I wrote about this in my book, "Where Virtue Flows," and even made the connection to Malachi. Thanks for sharing!
As a former KJVO, I now understand that people in our days need a word that immediately conveys the message rather than make a cognitive process instantly to understand the message. Not many have that capacity to do a quick process, especially when sharing with unbelievers or new Christian.
Thank you, Mark for your persistence in working to find true meaning in the world around you and especially during your study. Your work is a blessing. Merry Christmas.
I knew it must mean "power" but only because I knew that verse in modern translations. Without those , I would have been lost.
Similarly, I would had said “life-force”, but “power” is the idea i was thinking of. (Lol- just saying for Dr Ward’s research because he asked us to pause the vid and do this) .
Same here
I'm not sure if it's a false friend, but the word "hem" in the story does NOT mean "a border of a cloth article doubled back and stitched down" as our modern definition suggests, but refers specifically to the fringe or tassel on the corners of Jesus' cloak. That is, he wore tzitzit on his garments like other observant Jews of his day. This is often overlooked, as most movies or depictions only put tassels on the supersilious Pharisees. Our misunderstanding of words paints a different picture in our heads as we read the text.
Thanks for all your work and gracious spirit. Blessed Christmas brother!
Mark Ward, a brother of great virtue.
🙏God bless you Mark and your family❤ truly great video. So glad you're wife is feeling better🥹 We serve a mighty mighty God.🙌
I am just finishing up watching this as my wife is sleeping. She has kidney disease and I am only bringing this up because I heard you mention that your wife suffers from pain as well. Brother, I am with you. When there's nothing you can do as a man, sometimes the thoughts get strange, like, LORD!! why not me!? (
I have learned much from others who've gone through much worse pain and suffering than I have. Tim Keller is one of those: www.amazon.com/dp/1594634408?tag=3755-20.
Can't wait till your next video. Always a joy to hear your reasoning on point. You have so many abundant gifts. This Sunday as Choir Director at Church was yet another pleasure to see you in your element and the Spirit used you to bless all of us...Good Job! I am so proud of you & your family.
Thank you so much, Susan! I would have loved to have YOU in the choir!
99!! Yes! This is such a helpful resource for everyone. It’s valuable to KJV-onlyists (for obvious reasons) and most CT people aren’t anti-KJV and still revere the KJV, so it’s essentially a helpful list of words for everyone.
Mark, thank you for being both smart and humble. You’ve done tremendous work and I look forward to what you’ll be tackling in 2025.
I appreciate that!
Regarding your wife's situation: in the words of a Jewish prayer, "Blessed are you, Lord, healer of all flesh and worker of wonders."
Great video as always Mark. Thank you for all the work you have done on this topic and your kind spirit. I have benefited greatly from your work on King James readability.
This one I already knew but only because I had already researched it in reading the Canterbury Tales "Of which vertu engendred is the flour".
Oh, wow! Good catch!
@@wardonwords
Mark this is Not hard to understand.... if we grasp the "literal" definition of virtue... we will see that this has to do with "power"... Now .......
can we Really say that Jesus lost power here..?.. NO..
I don't think so... and so we must assume.. that even though this virtue/power went out of Jesus.. it did NOT deplete.. Jesus virtue/power...
we cannot consider "virtue".. to be like a battery on our Iphone.. where the more we use it the more its power depletes... and so.. even though Jesus.. sensed virtue departing from Him.. He in No way sensed that He Himself had any less virtue.. because of it..
I would have to say.. that the best definition of this "virtue".. would be "enablement".. or ability...
what this woman who touched Jesus garment gained...was the ability to be healed... which before this.. she could not ....and had not... been capable of for many many years...
the more important question is... did Jesus know this woman was going to touch His garment BEFORE this actually happened...?
we can argue and say that of course Jesus knew who touched His garment before and after it happened since He is God.. yet I believe this is/was one of those things that was reserved for ONLY the Father in Heaven to know...
I have counted 3 things that if Jesus was NOT lying that Jesus was NOT privy to before they happened...
1)... the time of the hour when the Father will send Jesus back to earth..
2).. the event of this woman being healed of her illness before it happened
3)...(and this one is debatable).. what reason did Jesus have to ask His Father in the Garden of Gethsemane if there be any way to remove this cup from Him...?.. was Jesus hoping the Father would change His mind.?. did Jesus Not know that God the Father would Not change His plans for Jesus...?..
Virtue i thought his righteousness "virtue" healed her.
I learned from using a modern translation that it means power.
Beginning of the video still. Only understand it as Power because of modern translations. Don't know how it could have had the same meaning. Time to learn
Wow! Great work. From context, I knew virtue was His power, but you explained it so well I now know WHY. And your love and understanding for your wife shows through!
I'm going to miss these false friend videos. Back In Bible college, I was challenged to take the KJV only lists of verses that "changed God's Word" in the NKJV and check them against the Greek/Hebrew. What I found was that all of them were false friends tripping up the KJVO makers of such lists, even though I didn't use the term "false friend" at that time. Years later, I discovered when preaching from my KJV that I often spent unnecessary time in the sermon explaining false friends and phrases that are simply unnatural or awkward to modern English speakers. I really appreciate Mark's efforts in these videos.
Right! It really is this simple!
Great work as usual, brother. Thanks for the helpful resources you provide. Happy Christmas to you and your family!
Thank you, Larry! Hope to see you again someday!
100 false friends - it's fantastic! I am thoroughly impressed and pleased at the calibre of your education over the long haul
You have consistently produced top shelf - S tier quality videos -
Thank you Mark - you inspire me to continue to press on to hear those words "well done - my good and faithful; servant"
Much appreciated, dear friend!
Thank you for your videos! And your ministry!
You are so welcome!
@@wardonwords
I am Not an expert on the definitions of "virtue".... but I found this from the internet...
"There are 31 meanings listed in OED's entry for the noun virtue, ten of which are labelled obsolete."
so I guess we can pretty much determine from any one of the VALID.. definitions today...what these verses really mean..
we would have to be able to get inside the KJV translator's heads to find out what they were "going for" with their choice of that word...
BUT.. at least with the KJV we know we are dealing with the mindset of individuals.. from 400 + years ago...
there is NO excuse for the translators from THIS era.. to translate a word.. incorrectly.. they have their PhD's and all their doctorates of think-ology... I would hope that these translators in our day.. could choose the proper word usage... but even they DON'T..
here is an analogy...... Mark....
I have a vehicle that is 25 years old...
I expect that vehicle to have mechanical issues..(it does)... I can accept that... it's OLD..
If I were to trade that vehicle in and get a NEW vehicle... should I expect the same mechanical issues with it...?..
it IS kind of silly isn't it.? to trade off.. an Old "bucket of bolts".. for a New "bucket of bolts..?
but that is what is wrong today... for all their hype and glamor... all I am getting in an updated or more modern bible translation is newer
mistranslations of even different words..
As a kjv preferred, it’s a crime to subject children to kjvo. After reading through the bible many times in modern translations and having access to them, I really appreciate the KJ but my kids are going to start with the CSB and the NKJV and the ESV. I think for memory I’ll do a mix of KJV and NKJV as that is what I’m doing whole book memory with and I really enjoy it. When they’re older they can use whatever they want.
I think having been raised in a family that used the KJV, it was the familiarity with the stories. But once I began reading the Bible as my own, I really had a hard time understanding the text. It wasn’t till I was in college that I bought a Ryrie study bible in the Nasb that I understood the text. Thank you Mark- for all the talk of bible translations, it is so important that we , as Christians understand that with such an abundance, we have so many people who are still disengaged from the Bible.
Paused the video at 3:13 I’m going to say virtue means power for two reasons.
1. I remember reading this passage in modern versions of the Bible where it says power came out of Jesus.
2. Because in Thomistic philosophy when speaking of Being and God, some people might say everything exists or pre-exists “virtually” in the divine essence, i.e. God has the power and foreknowledge to bring it about. And that had led me to learn virtue comes from the word vir meaning man/male in Latin, and it makes sense because a virtue someone has is a power or capability or strength he has to do something good with ease. Hence its connection to “manliness” and “power”.
I know it means "power" now, but I always took it to mean something like "Jesus' contagious purity caused her to be healed."
Me too.
That’s a good way to put it.
1 Cor 7:3 "Let the husband render unto the wife due benevolence: and likewise also the wife unto the husband." I think benevolence is a false friend here.
Merry Christmas to you and your family.
I always thought on that instance, virtue means power, specifically power to heal, went out of Jesus.
You were right! How did you know this when I didn't?
I assume virtue means power, but I have no idea. This story always tripped me up with its false friends.
This is a word I gathered the definition of from the context. Obviously, Jesus did not decline in moral values, so I assumed that it meant the function of healing. As you put it, healing "power".
I never searched for "false friends", and still don't, but when I first deconstructed, I was KJO and always kept a Strongs Concordance and a dictionary with archaic words, which was fairly big. I looked up a lot of words to understand their meaning, and I looked at all the alternative translations of the word in the KJV through the concordance.
I found a lot of places in the KJV where the different translation word was a better fit for the one in the verse I was checking. This would have been one of those cases. Some verses just make better sense when read with the other translated word elsewhere.
I love the cardigan
We’re talking about English. For decades our culture has become more secularized and the average person doesn’t hear references to the KJV everyday as once was the case. The language has become foreign. Just watch a 1940’s movie for an example of language change and chances are one won’t understand a lot of the 1940’s lingo. (lol)
I think the modern English phrase, "by virtue of", still flirts with the idea of power. We use it to mean, "because of", which has that idea of potential or driving force lurking around.
I found virtue in this video……..😘😉
I’ve learned to check thyself before thy wreckth thyself
Mark, Merry Christmas to you and yours !!! I was studying the conversion of the thief on the cross, and in Matthew's account ch. 27 vs. 44, (KJV) it states
"...cast the same in his teeth."
I immediately had to go to different translations in order to understand this. Was this a figure of speech at some time in the past? Thank you so much for everything you do!!
Power to the Plowboy ✊️😂
The Greek says nothing of the sort; this is surely an idiom, and a highly (and unnecessarily) functional/dynamic translation. The Greek has no casting and no teeth. It's just the word for "reviling."
@markwardonwords thank you so much!
I would say that this episode is one of great virtue! ;)
Virtue equals power.
There is an active meaning of "virtue" that does not mean "excellence in moral quality", which remains in the phrase "by virtue of" (or "in virtue of"). Similarly, Merriam Webster notes (admittedly, definition # 5 in their online dictionary) that virtue can mean "a capacity to act" (syn. with "potency"). So, while it is correct to say that the first meaning that will come to the head of a modern native speaker of English hearing the word "virtue" has to do with moral excellence, it is too much to say that the sense of "power" is altogether missing from modern use.
I can't see KJV Only existing in, say, 100 years from now. The English language seems to be changing too rapidly for the English of the KJV (c. 1769) to be intelligible in 100 years. I mean, I happen to think it's already largely unintelligible to the average American reader, but I am just one person, so what do I know. If there's a relatively reliable predictor for how rapidly, for example, American English is changing, then perhaps we can better pinpoint the tipping point when the KJV will no longer be intelligible to the majority of average American readers. I know KJV Onlyism exists all over the world, but its core seems to be the US. In the UK and the British Commonwealth in general, my impression is KJV Only is a very minority position (most evangelicals in the UK and British Commonwealth in general seem to use the NIV).
Virtuous Power---Positive LifeForce.
....this blot oft pondered
now cognized, white, laundered....
Mark 5.30 Coverdale: And forth with Iesus felt in himself the power that was gone out of him, and turned him aboute amoge the people, and sayde: Who hath touched my clothes?
Nice!
I DEARLY wish I could get the Bishop's Bible in Logos; and it only now occurs to me that I should have been including Coverdale in all my comparison work up till now.
@@wardonwords It's odd that it's missing, especially since Logos has a book *about* the making of the Bishops' Bible: www.logos.com/product/174258/the-day-after-domesday-the-making-of-the-bishops-bible
I look at virtue as goodness. So there was goodness that went out from Jesus. God does bless us through Jesus Christ, spiritually (Ephesians 1:3). The healing was physical but also demonstrated the man Jesus is God as well.
Good guess! What do you think now that you’ve watched the video?
@markwardonwords Most KJV Bibles I've seen have a reference section that explains strange words like this. My question is: if each KJV Bible explains the modern meaning to every false friend, would you say that there would be no reason to update the KJV?
Thank you for your time and work on the channel. I appreciate it.
This is a valid question. First, however, I question the premise: it is not my experience that most KJV editions have such helps. If they did, that would indeed be a major step. But I always say: think of the many circumstances in which those notes don't and can't help, such as Scripture memory cards and off-the-cuff quotations and evangelistic encounters-even church signs. If it's okay to explain the words, then it needs to be okay to revise them. Often enough, that just means taking the main word used in the explanation and putting it in the text. Why would that be wrong? Does that make sense?
Yes, thank you. I appreciate your answer. It does make sense in that context.
I assumed that it meant "power"
The closest I can think of a modern use of virtue in a similar sense as it is used in the king James would be virtuosity or virtuoso which im guessing has some shared origin/etymology.
I think you are right about them being influenced by the Vulgate. The 1582 Catholic Douay-Rheims English Bible also uses “virtue”.
It's not proof, but it's corroboration.
Having paused the video, I would say that virtue in this context is power. But I have an unfair advantage - I've been using modern translations (primarily the 1995 NASB and the LSB, but not eschewing others) for decades now. 🙂 And having unpaused it, I got a surprise. Perhaps it was inevitable, since I don't know Greek, just a few words, but I'd forgotten about *dunamis.* 🙂
I'm going to assume that virtue means "strength." I know that "power" is a common rendering in these passages, and I wonder if our contemporary use of "virtue" is based on a fundamental meaning of "strength of character," or something similar.
Good guess! What do you think now that you’ve watched the video?
Obligatory “pause the video and tell me”:
I would think virtue coming out of Jesus is meaning the positive qualities, via the Holy Spirit, flowed out of Jesus and into the person who touched him.
Good guess! What do you think now that you’ve watched the video?
Once again I think the Vulgate (which uses the Latin "virtus") is to blame.
The Vulgate is to blame?!? I know too little about this translation to make a strong statement, but I was under the impression that it was made so the scripture could be in the vulgar (as in common) tongue. Their translation choices reflects their times as they should. So let’s not use the term “blame,” but “source.” It explains the reason.
@@briteddy9759 No, it was made to resolve the issue that there wasn't a standard translation into Latin and pretty much everyone was making their own.
@@fnjesusfreak ok, I have something new to research.
Careful Mark, noticing that the dominion mandate is still effectual could get you into trouble, my friend! :-) Next thing you know, you'll start singing all the verses of "Joy to the World" and you know where that will lead...
I have heard it means strength.
Mark, I had the thought while watching but don't know how to research it myself. Is it possible that this meaning of virtue is what's intended in the phrase "patience is a virtue"? From what I can tell, our sense of the phrase comes from Piers Plowman in 1360, which is around when this meaning was in use. Idk if this would change anything, just a curious though experiment haha
I don’t think so! I think the contemporary sense works just fine there!
I puzzled over this (and world) some time ago and came to the conclusion it's a combination of the Vulgate, and Latin translations of Aristotle and St. Dionysius, meaning that they translated neoplatonism into the Bible. So many KJV translation issues is a direct result of the Vulgate.
Yes, sometimes I wonder if a given word really ever meant in English what early English translators use it to mean-or if they were just transliterating the "KJV" of their day, the Vulgate. But in this case, the OED has unearthed citations that make it look as though "virtue" really was used outside of Bible translation to mean "divine power."
@@wardonwords Oh I believe it was a regular word. I just think those three bodies of literature had an outsize impact on English through Latin and French that it made it into vernacular. It's like how the Latin Ovid transformed English through Shakespeare.
And I hope you have a merry Christmas, as I probably wont' see a new video between now and then :)
@@kainech YES. I think you are right. The Vulgate and the Norman invasion both had major impacts. (And the Norman invasion wasn't the only time French came into England, as I recall.)
….. when Wildsmith and Ward publish at the same time…..😳
I checked in with Wildsmith to see who got the Bibles 😊
Hi, Mark! May I ask you a question? Isn't experience in Romans 5:4 a false friend? The EOD put it as "The action of putting to the test; trial" - They quote Wycliff translation in Genesis 42:15.
Yes! ua-cam.com/video/5X4d61gr8EI/v-deo.html
@@wardonwords Thank so much, Mark. Although I have saved your playlist sometime ago, I only have started to going throght it yesterday!
@@wardonwords I start reading the 1984 NIV and I have a great surprise. There is a lot of new words to learn. I love the David Suchet audio version. God bless you, brother!
I belive virtue is used this way at some point in The Lord of the Rings! I don't have a quote at hand, but I believe some supernatural quality of the elves is referred to as a virtue.
Hello Mr. Ward. Is there a reason you took down your reply to my remarks and my reply to yours?
I did not do so-or not on purpose! Are you sure those comments were on this video? I delete comments only when they're truly vile, and I don't remember you doing that.
I must admit, though I heavily used and memorized the KJV for the first 17 years of my life, I can't recall what I thought when I read "virtue" has gone from Jesus. By the time I critically recieved my first copy of the New World Translation, I would have read it as "power". Yes, it would have been quite confusing reading "virtue" though. Sad to see #100 completing the series.
The New World Translation?? Brother what??? Throw that out
@@getgnomed6179 I've been doing close-up examining of the NWT. It isn't nearly as bad as many people say.
@@getgnomed6179 I've been critically examining the New World Translation for over 50 years now. It really isn't nearly as bad as many say.
Coming from a Word of Faith perspective, the word "virtue" in the Gospels is defined as "moral energy". (Word of faith folks are not exactly academically rigorous.) The word is understood to mean both the power (which healed the woman) and also the goodness of God. This ties to the fact that the faith of the woman touching the hem of Jesus' garment drew upon a reward from God (see Heb. 11:6 KJV). Thus, "virtue" is an exactly correct and current word to use. Moral goodness is not just a passive thing, it is actually a spiritual thing, like a spiritual substance. That's why Jesus could perceive it being drawn upon by the woman in the throng. And that's why attacking this correct word as "archaic and incomprehensible", "a mere forced variation of wording in translation" and defined by "going to the Greek today" is misguided. Even in Latin, the word "virtus" means things like "moral excellence" and was used in Roman times to mean a force for "good deeds" or accomplishments. Sticking with the English in studying Scripture alone and secondarily in the literal etymology of the word blasts away the entire doubtful, dismissive questioning of the exactly correct word "virtue".
I do find your video's interesting in that you show why you think the words used in the KJV are no longer understood today. But there are those who read the KJV and I am one of them that would not define the word virtue in the context with the woman with the issue of blood as power coming out of Jesus. I would define the issue in her as being separated from the community due to the Mosaic law and the virtue hear i would view it as the goodness of God coming out of Jesus. Though I can understand why you would view it as power instead of what it actually is. What it actually is is the Spirit of God countering the activity of a devil.
The ultimate authority here is the Greek, not the English.
For better understanding read His Word in parallel (blue letter bible): KJB on left side, some Critical bible on right side. The Holy Spirit will help you rightly divide.
My ideal translation would have
- the KJV language with only the necessary updates (dead/false words)
- NASB text formatting and subheadings.
Most of these "false friends" you describe are not difficult, only to the scholars I guess. Many words in the Bible have multiple applications and can be understood based on how they are used. Virtue here obviously means power.
I misunderstood this when I was not even close to being a scholar. I don’t consider myself a scholar now. Did I do something wrong as a child to misunderstand this word?
Someone deleted them.
Did you include a link?
Sometimes UA-cam deletes comments with links.
Mr. Ward, your propensity to discredit the KJB is on display once again. The word "virtue" means "strength." That is the root meaning of the word in most English dictionaries. Even the Greek word translated "virtue" in Mark 5:30 is dunamis which means "strength" or "power." It says in Ruth 3:11 that Boaz called Ruth a"virtuous woman." The Hebrew here is "chayil" which means "strength." (UA-cam does not allow italics or words other than English.) The word "virtue" or "virtuous" in the KJV is consistent with the translation. When you try to force the "modern" English definitions to a biblical word you will find confusion. You seem to have a unique ability to spread confusion about the words of God.
My friend, I have three questions:
1. Why did the OED mark that sense of "virtue" as archaic?
2. Are there any archaic words in the KJV?
3. Is it discrediting the KJV to say that some KJV words are archaic?
Please give me serious answers. You write well; I know you can think clearly. Please answer my questions straightforwardly.
"When you try to force the "modern" English definitions to a biblical word you will find confusion."
That's exactly the point he's been making for years now. It's easy enough to say that a dictionary will give "strength" as the "root meaning of the word," but how many people are going to be consulting a dictionary for the word "virtue" instead of assuming the most prominent usage of the word?
And in the time it took them to seek out an obscure definition, they could've instead been reflecting upon the virtue being expressed in the narrative itself. A word study of an _English_ word takes up time that could be spent on more productive study.
@@wardonwords Merry Christmas, my friend.
Question 1: the OED marks a lot of words archaic but they can still be used with confidence.
Question 2: Yes, the KJV has archaic words but with a little effort, the word is usually defined in the context. Question 3: Yes, you discredit the KJV by correcting the "archaic" words and suggesting the translators of the KJV did wrong in using certain words.
I suppose the following evidence could be said that even the "new" translations have archaic words. The following examples are notexhaustive. Example: NIV has "abashed (Isa. 24:23), "aghast" (Isa. 13:8), "alcove" (Ezek. 40:13), "parapet" (Deut. 22:8), "poultice" (2 Kings 20:7), "qualm" (Jude 12), et al. The ESV has some: "dissipation" (Luke 21:34), "impudence" (Luke 11:8), "let it out" (Luke 20:9). These are not exhaustive, simply examples that verify archaic words can be used unless a textual critic says they are wrong.
One of the major problems I have with the "new" translations is their doctrine and contradictions. Example from the Legacy Standard Bible (LSB): compare 2 Samuel 5:20-21 and 1 Chronicles 14:11-12. These two passages are the same events. In one (2 Samuel 5) David's army defeated the army of the Philistines and "struck them down" (vs. 20). Then in vs. 21, "David and his men carried the idols them away" (the idols). Reading 1 Chronicles 14 the same events took place and "David said the word, and they were burned with fire." Check these two passages in the KJV and see the difference. I know this is not the total answer you wanted but at least the difference between the KJV and some of the "new" translations is obvious. Another problem with "new" translations is their doctrine of "lordship salvation." Compare John 3:36 in the KJV with what the LSB says (also: ESV, NASV95). The KJV says in John 3:36, "He that believeth on the Son hath everlasting life: and he that believeth not the Son shall not see life. . ." The LSV says in John 3:36, "He who believes in the Son has eternal life; but he who does not obey the Son will not see life. . ." The Greek word in the text of John 3:36 translated "believeth not" (KJV) is "apeitheo" which means "disobey," yet, BDAG, Friberg, and Gingrich all suggest that concerning the Gospel it means "refuse to believe" (Friberg). The word BDAG indicates it has the connotation of "disbelief" with the Greek word "apeitheo" vs. "apeitheia." It is not both ways. When one lets the Greek determine their belief they may run into some difficulties (or sometimes bad doctrine). Some things could be said about the state of the Greek NT. It is in a state of disarray and changes every time the "Greek MSS" evidence demonstrates that some of the decisions made in the "apparatus" of the USB and NA were wrong or based on "speculation" and not valid MSS evidence. I am not a Reformed believer, but a "grace" believer. We are saved by grace through faith (Eph. 2:8-10, KJV). Our obedience has nothing to do with salvation, getting it or losing it according to Eph. 2:9, "Not of works, lest any man should boast" (KJV, ESV, NKJV, NIV, NASB95).Interestingly, the LSB has similar wording for Eph. 2:9, yet says in John 3:36 (LSB) ". . .he who does not obey the Son will not see life." This is a contradiction concerning an important matter, "eternal life." I suppose that the LSB would say that a person who does not obey, loses his salvation if he does not obey. Have a good day.
@@jerryrockwell9499 I want to stay on the matters I raised.
Question 1: If the OED marks a word as archaic, it cannot be used with confidence. That's precisely what you cannot do. People will either not know the word or will not know the sense of the word that you intend.
Question 2: Yes, archaic words are often defined in context in the KJV-but not always, and sometimes it takes real knowledge to realize what's going on.
Question 3: Where have I suggested that the KJV translators did wrong in using certain words? I believe I did this once, quite purposefully, in one video on an obscure metaphor in Job 17:6. This is no more than the KJV translators themselves did in their preface. I have stated over and over and over and over and over that the false friends are not errors. They were perfectly fine choices in 1611.nslators themselves did in their preface.
@markwardonwords can you look into the word 'world' in the new testament, KJV. Its translated from multiple source words from the Greek. Thanks!