The 3rd council of Carthage in 397 declares a complete list of the New Testament books and Old Testament books that include the deuterocanonical books.
Yes, that it true. But this council was not an ecumenical council, only a regional council. It is during this same time period that Jerome protests the inclusion of these books in the Vulgate. The debated position of these books was not settled officially by the catholic church until Trent.
@ so in order for something to be doctrine it has to be promulgated by an ecumenical council and universal acceptance by the whole church until the 16th century is not enough for it to be a binding doctrine on the believer? Jerome in his writings in “against Rufinus” acknowledges that his view is the minority view, opposed to the Church’s view, and possibly wrong even potentially sinful. He also submitted to the authority of the Pope and the “judgement of the churches” and translated the books he opposed. Why would he submit to the Pope and the church’s judgment if it was just a regional declaration?
@@TheKj85 Jerome's translation of those books in no way indicates he considered them Scripture. Luther translated the apocryphal books as well, and so have many in the protestant tradition. If you have further questions you can refer to Peter Williams' work: "The Bible, the Septuagint, and the Apocrypha" or consider this lecture over the same material: "ua-cam.com/video/xhmMKwl3KeE/v-deo.html"
what about septuagint?
What are you asking about specifically?
The 3rd council of Carthage in 397 declares a complete list of the New Testament books and Old Testament books that include the deuterocanonical books.
Yes, that it true. But this council was not an ecumenical council, only a regional council. It is during this same time period that Jerome protests the inclusion of these books in the Vulgate. The debated position of these books was not settled officially by the catholic church until Trent.
@ so in order for something to be doctrine it has to be promulgated by an ecumenical council and universal acceptance by the whole church until the 16th century is not enough for it to be a binding doctrine on the believer?
Jerome in his writings in “against Rufinus” acknowledges that his view is the minority view, opposed to the Church’s view, and possibly wrong even potentially sinful. He also submitted to the authority of the Pope and the “judgement of the churches” and translated the books he opposed. Why would he submit to the Pope and the church’s judgment if it was just a regional declaration?
@@TheKj85 Jerome's translation of those books in no way indicates he considered them Scripture. Luther translated the apocryphal books as well, and so have many in the protestant tradition. If you have further questions you can refer to Peter Williams' work: "The Bible, the Septuagint, and the Apocrypha" or consider this lecture over the same material: "ua-cam.com/video/xhmMKwl3KeE/v-deo.html"