Convergence in distribution of a random variable
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- Опубліковано 17 сер 2013
- This video explains what is meant by convergence in distribution of a random variable. Check out ben-lambert.com/econometrics-... for course materials, and information regarding updates on each of the courses. Quite excitingly (for me at least), I am about to publish a whole series of new videos on Bayesian statistics on youtube. See here for information: ben-lambert.com/bayesian/ Accompanying this series, there will be a book: www.amazon.co.uk/gp/product/1...
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at around 3:28 ur sound disappears.
i think its on purpose.
@@kiranbhattarai6755 I thought it was my PC bugging and restarted it haha
He got confused for a second. He was just making sure the math works out to check convergence in dist and but not in probability. Source: mind reading.
excellent explanation. The geographic meaning worth more than anything.
Awesome explanation!
you the real mvp
Just want to know how do we know the converge rate is sqrt of N?
When we say X_n converges in distribution to X, do we mean the summation of the random variables from X_1 to X_n is what's converging in distribution to X?
The way I always see it stated is that X_n itself converges in distribution to X, but why would the nth draw from a population have a different cdf from the first, second, or any other draw from the population?
X_n is a sequence of random variables.
Consider X_1 to X_n as some random variable and then apply the above video concepts.
it wont have different cdf. if u plot distribution of Y, it is going to be same as the one of x. hence convergence of distribution.
@@naveenkartik1482 yeah and the guy in the video didnt say that. Thats the definition of a bad teacher.
what is confusing though is what it means if Xn converges in distribution to a constant. I mean what is the cdf of a constant??
I’d guess that the cdf of a constant (let’s say c) would be zero for x=c since it is implied that P(X=c)=1
hi
how do you get the Y=1-X ?
thankyou
i think he just defined it as a new rv
since p=0.5 for both x=0,1: Pr(X=x)=0.5. Now Y=1-X, complement of X so, Pr(Y=x)=0.5 for both x=0,1. Looking up bernouli formula and making sure it makes sense help for the intuition :))
The sound of the videos is not good
Normally love your videos, but this one is missing labels on the graph axis and that's a critical flow unless you know the labels :(