If there is an inner metallic sphere surrounded by larger metallic sphere, what is the potential inside the sphere and what is the potential outside the shell?
I understand why for between a1 and a2 the net charge within the region is 0, however when looking at the area between a3 and a4, wouldn't it be nonzero? The surface a1 has a charge of -q, while the surface a2 has a charge of +q. Since all the electrons moved to the inner surface, the outer surface has an equal positive charge. So the region between the -q and +q charges makes sense. The surface a3 has a charge -q caused by the +q charge on surface a2. Due to the electrons moving to the a3 surface, a4 has a resulting equal +q charge. However there is an additional charge Q on the surface of a4. Doesn't this mean that there will be an electric field between the regions a4 and a3 since (Q+q) != (q)? I'll take your word on it for now bc I have an exam, but if you or someone else can, pls explain why the above reasoning is flawed.
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If there is an inner metallic sphere surrounded by larger metallic sphere, what is the potential inside the sphere and what is the potential outside the shell?
Now I realized that I messed it up with flux. That's why I was so confused. Electric potential is not vector! Thank you very much!
I understand why for between a1 and a2 the net charge within the region is 0, however when looking at the area between a3 and a4, wouldn't it be nonzero?
The surface a1 has a charge of -q, while the surface a2 has a charge of +q. Since all the electrons moved to the inner surface, the outer surface has an equal positive charge. So the region between the -q and +q charges makes sense.
The surface a3 has a charge -q caused by the +q charge on surface a2. Due to the electrons moving to the a3 surface, a4 has a resulting equal +q charge. However there is an additional charge Q on the surface of a4.
Doesn't this mean that there will be an electric field between the regions a4 and a3 since (Q+q) != (q)?
I'll take your word on it for now bc I have an exam, but if you or someone else can, pls explain why the above reasoning is flawed.
Thanks dude
thank you
Fuuuuuaaark, it's so simple now.
please explain earthing of electrical potential conducting shells
The potential would be 0
@@PhysicsNinja There are questions related to charge distribution after earthing in my physics book
Thanks... a lot