Sir ki badi respect karta hu but Jo ans sir ne diya hopefully that was not sufficient and was not as good ! Base same hone par power equal ho jati hai agar difference of the power is zero Aur base same hone par powers ko equal nahi rakh skte hain is the difference is not zero Example 1 ki power 5 = 1 ki power 5 mai difference of 5-5=0 hence in this case we consider 5=5 But if you take 1 ki power 5 = 1ki power 3 in this case clearly you can see the difference between the power is not zero hence you can't say 5=3 I hope you understand it well now thank you ❤
A teacher is considered an excellent teacher when they are able to explain such topics with utmost simplicity and don't just go with the "it is like this because it just is" excuse. Of course it goes without saying that this is one of the factors why HC Verma Sir is one of the most brilliant teachers of India.
It's been 3 yrs since I left physics ( as a subject 😆 ) , still I watch these videos and try to connect where I left that fascinating universe. Thank you sir ❤️
Hats off sir! I am speechless, can't express in words that how big gentleman you are for giving the right and accurate education needed to this generation who is rotting their brains on shitty reels. God bless you sir!
Love these explanations on fundametals, sometimes questions on some basic concept becomes more tricky & teasing than, questions involving tough calculation....Great Sir, Thankyou 🙏
Bahut hi gajab aur jis tarah se aap ne cupboard k door par samjhaya hai that's incredible I salute you for this. Maine apke bahut sare video nhi dekhe ab lag raha hai galti ki hai past me
Thank you Prof. Verma 🙏 If you don't mind, I'll try to follow your style of teaching someday slowly removing the clouds to bring the clarity of established principles in maths and physics. You are simply superb SIR!
मेरे पास 7-8 दिनों से इस video का suggestion आ रहा था, लेकिन मैं यह सोचकर नहीं देख रहा था कि आप english में बताएँगे। हिंदी में बताने के लिए धन्यवाद सर🙏
Bilkul ekdum sahi hai 💯 , always take logarithm once when there is a exponent question. I also think like that method otherwise you can also try using Lambert W function.
Beautiful explination indeed our lord is one and Only....lord deserves all praises and only to b worshiped alone ......there is no god but One and only One......who is the sole creator and rest is creation. .....
Sir why don't you start your own series of class 11th and 12th physics for JEE and NEET in which you will be clarifying all the concepts which even teachers fails to teach. It would be helpful for all those students who can't afford to get themselves enrolled in top coaching institutes and also for those who are struggling to understand the concept in the coaching because of the low level explanation given by teachers. Please look at gravity of this matter. A humble request to you from the bottom of my heart.
I don't think it is possible for sir to teach all jee/neet physics at this age . Also I think he does not teaches with any bounding on syllabus , he just want every student to understand core physics , irrelevance of any specific syllabus of any competetive exam..
If you see his book concepts of physics, it isn't made for JEE and NEET. It was just for making everyone understand physics. We aspirants solve it because of its conceptual questions
@@xijinping3543 this more than anything else forget about jee for a while, and just enjoy what he teaches. (btw I have cleared jee studying in a tier 1 institute)
Verma sahab, aapne bahut achha explain kiya exponential rule ko jis mein aapke anusaar base ki value agar 1 ke alaawa aur koi bhi ho toh bhi ye equation satisfy ho jaayegi. Sorry sir, aisa nahin hai. Agar base -1 bhi ho, tab bhi ye equation satisfy nahin ho paayegi. Example 👇 (-1)^2 = (-1)^4 => 2 = 4 (jo ki ganit ke niyaanusaar sahi nahin hai!!). Yaani ke base -1 bhi nahin ho sakta!!!! Isi tarah agar aap ghaur karen, toh base ki power 0, 1 aur --1 ye teeno nahin ho sakti, warna equation satisfy nahin ho paayegi.
The thing is we can make jokes about them, but the effort and the happy enthusiasm he is expressing, are missing in our generation, its if we are not interested, just respect his concern!
The one-one property of exponential function requires the base to be>1. Since when base is 1, the exponential function will map each point in its domain to 1.
Hello Sir, Good to see you again. Myself Javed Ansari, I am a Maths Professor and teach 11th, 12th Maths include JEE MAINS & Advance. I would like to enhance the statement. "Since bases are the same their exponents would be equal, if the bases are not 1, -1, zero and infinity."
Thank God (also UA-cam algorithm), Mujhe solution mil gaya, mera dost na khud pata tha aur mujhe kafi dino se pareshan kar raha na tha ab uske muh pe solution dunga 🤣🤣... Also Thanks for HC Verma sir...🙏🙏
वाह sir आपने क्या concept बता दिये। Sir aap maths ka kuchh course Ya concept wala वीडियो UA-cam par ya koi website par start karte......... . Class zero to higher tak.🙏🙏🙏🙏
there is a simple answer to this, correlation does not mean causation, in your case, the reason why (-1) to the 2nd power and 4th power are equal is because they both equal -1, not because 2 equals 4, but if you want to go indepth for the proof (which is not so simple) , you have to go to a complex world since the logarithm of a negative number is not defined in the real world, see this -1 on the complex plane is at an angle of 180 degrees or PI from the starting plane, while you can use that angle in the euler's formula, you have to notice that for these specific numbers -1, 1, i and -i, you can go around 360 degrees or 2PI around the plane and end up at the same point, so for (-1)^2 to (-1)^4 it is just off by an angle of 2nPI where n is an integer, theyre the same number but they have "different" angles for 0, the log function is undefined as no number to a power can equal 0 other than 0, you can try to tackle this in the form of limits, since the limit as x-->0+ of Ln(x) is --infinity, you can look at it as 0^2 = 0^4 take the natural log on both sides 2 Ln(0) = 4 Ln(0) using ln(0) as -infinity, 2 * -infinity = 4 * -infinity, hence -infinity = -infinity, so it is true and not because 2 = 4 if you think about it, its like solving an equation, lets say 4x = 2x, then you move like terms to one side and get 4x - 2x = 0, factor out an x x(4-2) = 0, here we cant just say 4-2=0 as that just doesnt make sense, so only other possibility is that x = 0 hope this helps :)
Respected Sir, I'm a 12th class student from Nadia, West Bengal. After taking lessons from this video, I became very excited to know why *0! =1* and it's physical significance and it's role in our nature. Sir , kindly explain this.
A factorial of a number "n" is defined as n!=n×(n-1)×(n-2)...×2×1 By this definition we can say that n!=n×(n-1)! Therefore (n-1)!=n!/n Putting n=1 we get, (1-1)!=1!/1 Therefore 0!=1 Hence proved
Respected Sir My name is Anukalp and study in class 10. I have a doubt in physics in optics. We know that when a monochromatic light passes through prism it does not disperse and simply got deviated. But when a monochromatic green light (let assume the light source be laser beam) when passes through prism you will be astonished to see that inside the prism the green light will be (refracted) reddish-orange in colour and the emergent ray will be as usual green. Sir you can check also yourself by doing the experiment. Sir, my question is that why the monochromatic green light is visible reddish orange in colour. I will be very pleased to get the answer from you
Since you are in 10th right now, the explanation might be a bit complex for you, but I shall try to keep it as simple as possible. When you pass light through prism, a part of it gets *REFRACTED* and the other gets *REFLECTED* It means some energy of the photons(small packets of light energy;massless particles) gets radiated out while some remains in the prism. Energy is related to Frequency of light as E=hf [h is a constant] =>E=(hc)/W [c is speed of light and W is the wavelength] f=c/W from the relation velocity=frequency×wavelength From E=(hc)/W When E decreases, Wavelength of light increases in same proportion, and since wavelength of light decreases it changes its color. Hope it helps
You need to understand that whenever a ray of light refracts, it's wavelength increases. To understand the reason you also need to know that frequency of a ray of light only and only depends on its source and it doesn't change throughout its journey, and you also need to know that speed of light decreases when it enters a medium. Therefore by the formula V=fλ if the speed of light changes in entering another medium then lambda(i.e. wavelength) should also change and your frequency remains constant through this process. Therefore, before refraction f1 = V1/λ1, After refraction f2= V2/λ2. Since f1=f2 therefore, V1/λ1=V2/λ2, therefore, V2 x λ1 -----------= λ2 V1
Sir please answer this question🙏🏻 -What is the difference between total power and equivalent power with respect to an electric circuit (because both of them have different formular with respect to series/parallel combination of the circuit)?
Amazing explanation sir ! I have a question though (not related the topic of the video) when the JEE advance paper is set what sort of qualities are being searched in a student ? I always had this question sir .
With your written book named "the concept of physics" there are many memories are attached with me I have no that much capacity to bring out I bring it from a senior of mine after that I started my journey of physics from there I started to make follow your books directly which students usually prefer after make clear their concepts of theory for practice problems There was many numbers of sleepless night with that book whenever I read it I was found myself on a other world of physics Even I ignored many time other subjects like chemistry when I being much attached to physics But thing is that many of my friends make laugh at me just because all over the night I stay outside the room that which was provided on my hostel just because nobody could make disturb in between while I study or practice problem I was think over either the sleepless night will make pay me or not But at last it make me pay for that sleepless night at 1st attempt I clear jeemain now I am student of btech 1st year of chemical engineering If that day I will not choose my own road then their should be no a single change I could found between their and my life They all are laughing at me because I was different from them But I just make smile on their because they all are same
He's good, except that he couldn't paint the entire picture. Base = 1 is just one of the two exceptions to this rule. The other being Base = 0 0^1=0^2 but 1 is not equal to 2.
Hlw HCV sir. I'm a class 9th student,I want to ask a question ,it is running my mind all day. Q . Can light be independent of heat(any kind of heat) ?? Help me to know this , sir Huge respect to you nd your contribution!😊
LIGHT IS A FORM OF ENERGY WHICH GIVES US THE SENSATION OF SIGHT. Its a form of energy ,likewise heat is also a form of energy . wherever there is a dissipation of energy ,it is compulsory heat generation will be there, suppose you run for 1km, you will find yourself sweating due to heat generated in your body. light is too ,has the useful energy + unavailable energy conversion. THE UNAVAILABLE ENERGY IS THE HEAT ENERGY IN CASE OF BULB. (H=i SQUARE RT ) IN CASE OF WATER HEATER ,THE USEFUL ENERGY IS HEAT ENERGY. IF YOU SEE EM WAVES (LIGHT IS ALSO AN EM WAVE) , THERE IS DISSIPATION OF HEAT ENERGY IN THE FORM OF RADIATION. SO LIGHT,HEAT,SOUND,CHEMICAL OR ANY FORM OF ENERGY IS INTERELATED, REMEMBER IT CAN NEITHER BE CREATED NOR DESTROYED ONLY IT CHANGES ITS FORM. IN NUCLEAR REACTIONS TOO THERE IS SPLITTING OF URANIUM ATOM WHICH GENERATE HEAT ,THAT IS USED TO PRODUCE STEAM WHICH RUNS THE TURBINE TO GENERATE ELECRICITY. OR IF YOU BOMBARD ANY RAYS THERE WILL BE HEAT GENERATION. SO MY DEAR FREIND ,THERE IS EXCHANGE OF ENERGY EVERYWHERE, THE BIG EXAMPLE IS SUN ( NUCLEAR REACTION HAPPENS THERE) RADIATING SOLAR FLARES AND EM WAVES WHICH GETS TRAPEED AT NORTH AND SOUTH POLES TO FORM BEAUTIFUL AURORA . HOPE YOU UNDERSTAND THIS EXPLANATION, WELCOME.
Pranam Sir my question is that if other planets and celestial objects are moving around sun so why don't they mix with the sun because sir according to laws every heavy object attracts other objects which has smaller mass than himself and many teachers illustrates the moving of earth around sun in a net where sun is in the center and the object around it revolves and after some time it gets attracted to the object(sun) sir please clear my doubt every teacher rejected this question from starting and sir i have very much hope that you will definitely look up to this.
all planets and celestial bodies have constant velocities and they thus follow a stable orbit around the sun which is why they don't fall into sun, now unless mass of bodies or velocity of bodies change this path will not change however there are more factors in real life
Bro In Advanced Physics You wil learn a concept that is due to resultant force on them .. They Got A Velocity In tangential direction of sun and one component make the Earth revolve and other one balances the sun ☀️ Gravitational pull .. So it's not able to get pulled by sun but I think If a very heavy Force Will be On the Side of sun will be applied .. That You think will take place but It Can Happen Because If some large Body come near our earth so it will take earth toward it attract it very heavily so We will not able to so sun's side .. I hope it's clear you More I will be happy if sir gives a beautiful explanation on it ...
@Pratham Kalgutkar, what you've mentioned is not right. You've written that all planets and celestial bodies have constant velocities. They DON'T. At no point of time is their velocity constant. At every point of time, their speed and direction is changing when rotating around heavier bodies. Now, coming to the question of why doesn't Earth fall into the Sun, as demonstrated by the Earth-Sun model in a lab. The answer is this: It will, if there is dissipation of energy and sufficient time. These 2 conditions are met when that lab demonstration is done. Taking Sun at the centre of observation, there's no torque on Earth due to the force applied due to Sun's gravity(as gravity is a central force), therefore conservation of angular momentum can be taken into consideration. Therefore the Earth continues to revolve around the Sun. But there are other planets in Solar system and there's whole milky way galaxy.. they do exert force in various directions on Earth and Sun. It is a possibility that one day, very very far in the future, Earth could spiral in the Sun, or maybe not. Maybe it's orbit will change like the moon's orbit is changing. Earth's moon's orbit is changing every moment. There was a time in very distant past that moon was very close to Earth. And it WILL happen that moon will forever be gone from Earth's orbit never to be seen anymore.
Sir what will happen if the base is 0? Where will the contradiction arise if zero is the base in the following equation i.e. 0^2 = 0 0^3 = 0 Thus, 0^2=0^3 ---> 2 = 3 {Because of same bases}
Best explanation for this would be basically 5^² means 5 multiplied twice but if we see in a way 5^¹ should mean 5 multiplied once but multiplied to whom? Simple answer is 1. So 5^³ is 5 multiplied thrice to 1. So 5^0 means 5 not multiplied at all to 1. Hence 5^0 means 1. Like wise 1^0 means one not multiplied to 1 so leaving us with just a 1
Thank you Dear HC Verma Sir, you made our childhood proud. Your concepts of HC Verma book Part 1 & 2 were foundations of our thoughts.
Beta, batao tumhara JEE me kya rank he
@@nithinsabu4808 😂😂
@@nithinsabu4808 AIR 101
@@GoToMan nice bro.
I am 4016.
@@nithinsabu4808 Haha, I was speculating about his rank tho. Never wrote JEE, went for Stanford straight away.
What a mind-blowing concept...
We studied this from younger classes but couldn't think about this....
Genius sir 👍🔥🔥
Genius is the kid who thought about that question
@@anshumansingh7726 true
@@anshumansingh7726 I simply dealt the question by taking log both sides and mind my words this is a ridiculous doubt for a jee advanced aspirant.
Sir ki badi respect karta hu but Jo ans sir ne diya hopefully that was not sufficient and was not as good !
Base same hone par power equal ho jati hai agar difference of the power is zero
Aur base same hone par powers ko equal nahi rakh skte hain is the difference is not zero
Example 1 ki power 5 = 1 ki power 5 mai difference of 5-5=0 hence in this case we consider 5=5
But if you take 1 ki power 5 = 1ki power 3 in this case clearly you can see the difference between the power is not zero hence you can't say 5=3
I hope you understand it well now thank you ❤
Bro i thought this like a month ago and I'm in 10th standard 😂 so i came for the answer today on UA-cam
His simplicity is amazing. Best physics teacher and guide HC VERMA sir
why you are learning science ? It is haram 😭😭🤣🤣🤣🤣
@@IndicHorseman khud ke joke pe hass Raha hai.
Study channel hai yeh. Aise comments kisi political channel or daal. Fir shayad kuch support mile. Lol
@@IndicHorsemanyour existence is haram
Legends are noticing he is doing the question on almirah door 😂
🤣
I was finding this comment finally done 😅 dhund liya
🤣
Sahi pakde ho
😹😹😹😹😹😹😹
A teacher is considered an excellent teacher when they are able to explain such topics with utmost simplicity and don't just go with the "it is like this because it just is" excuse. Of course it goes without saying that this is one of the factors why HC Verma Sir is one of the most brilliant teachers of India.
HC Verma sir always comes up with excellent explanations for problems. JEE ki prep nikali hai sir ki kitaab padhke ❣
konse IIT se and which batch sir
@@riteshbudania1129 iit-b cse lmao
@@truth1549 What is lmao bro ??
@@immaxmad5054 lmao
@@immaxmad5054 lmao
Praising you sir
No matter whatever the subject is
You have a desent answer for all questions
Big fan of your knowledge sir
Learning from you
It's been 3 yrs since I left physics ( as a subject 😆 ) , still I watch these videos and try to connect where I left that fascinating universe.
Thank you sir ❤️
IITian?
@@SaketIsLIVE no bro...mei engineering mei nhi hu
@@sataniksil ok
@@sataniksil kya kr rhe ho ? Science field se ho ?
@@AnilSharma-vo8ok integrated MSc. Agriculture Rural and Tribal Development
Hats off sir! I am speechless, can't express in words that how big gentleman you are for giving the right and accurate education needed to this generation who is rotting their brains on shitty reels. God bless you sir!
His name will be written in golden words in the history of PHYSICS🔥
Love these explanations on fundametals, sometimes questions on some basic concept becomes more tricky & teasing than, questions involving tough calculation....Great Sir, Thankyou 🙏
Bahut hi gajab aur jis tarah se aap ne cupboard k door par samjhaya hai that's incredible I salute you for this. Maine apke bahut sare video nhi dekhe ab lag raha hai galti ki hai past me
Your style of teaching is heart touching sir 🙏🙏🙏
Sir ji board pe nhi darwaaje par hi explain kar dete hai ye hota hai guru prem 😍😍
Thank You Sir for clarifying this as I too was unaware of this until my Mathematics faculty at Allen taught me
FOM 😁
Amazingly simplistic teacher... eager for each explanation and teaching with immense patience: signs of a great teacher!
Aapki video dekh ke ek hi cheez nikalti hai zebaan se . Woww amagazine . Maaza aajata hai sir kyaa pyaare pyaare concept laate ho
Thank you Prof. Verma 🙏 If you don't mind, I'll try to follow your style of teaching someday slowly removing the clouds to bring the clarity of established principles in maths and physics. You are simply superb SIR!
Savage reply to all those who thinks that this is a question for checking IQ 😂😂😂😂
HCV SIR IS ❤
CHARANSPARSH HCV SIR 🙏🏻🙏🏻🙏🏻
Bro Chavanprash nahi charanprash
@@krishnamahawar319 bhai woh चरणस्पर्श bol raha hai
@@krishnamahawar319 apni aakho me to nhi dal lia chaman prash🤣🤣🤣
Gajab log hai yaar
@@dedicated2304 bhai chavanprash nahi charansparsh
Got this formula in 9th standard but no teacher had ever explained to me like you did.
Thanks for the answer!!
Really enlightened!
Maza aagaya sachme!
I think they also have restrictions. Like a 9th grader don't know about logarithms
Legends do not come for solve his/her doubt they come for see his teaching style😅😅😅😅😅😅😅😅😅😅
Others Just Tell About the rule is not applicable for base 1 but sir Explanation with Log is Amazing and Clear Thank You Sir
I have no words for such an educator 💐💐💓💓💐💐☪️☪️☪️☪️☪️
Hat mulla
This is what dedication looks like ❤
Thank you Sir 🇮🇳🕉️
Thanks sir for giving us a new information about mathematics 👌👌
I feel blessed that I am able to learn from such a person
Wonderful explanation sir....must appreciate the kid who came out with such a doubt 👍
मेरे पास 7-8 दिनों से इस video का suggestion आ रहा था, लेकिन मैं यह सोचकर नहीं देख रहा था कि आप english में बताएँगे। हिंदी में बताने के लिए धन्यवाद सर🙏
Bilkul ekdum sahi hai 💯 , always take logarithm once when there is a exponent question. I also think like that method otherwise you can also try using Lambert W function.
The fact that the legend is teaching on a wardrobe notice that handle..
Today i learn new concept on behalf of your knowledge.
Waah Sir ji waah 👌 kitne vistaar se iss prashn ka uttar diya aapne 🙏
True LEGEND…Doesn’t need even board to teach 🙏🙏
Beautiful explination indeed our lord is one and Only....lord deserves all praises and only to b worshiped alone ......there is no god but One and only One......who is the sole creator and rest is creation. .....
Sir why don't you start your own series of class 11th and 12th physics for JEE and NEET in which you will be clarifying all the concepts which even teachers fails to teach. It would be helpful for all those students who can't afford to get themselves enrolled in top coaching institutes and also for those who are struggling to understand the concept in the coaching because of the low level explanation given by teachers.
Please look at gravity of this matter. A humble request to you from the bottom of my heart.
I don't think it is possible for sir to teach all jee/neet physics at this age . Also I think he does not teaches with any bounding on syllabus , he just want every student to understand core physics , irrelevance of any specific syllabus of any competetive exam..
Ye best h ✨
He doesn't like teaching for comeptitve papers, he likes teaching physics for interested
If you see his book concepts of physics, it isn't made for JEE and NEET. It was just for making everyone understand physics. We aspirants solve it because of its conceptual questions
@@xijinping3543 this more than anything else
forget about jee for a while, and just enjoy what he teaches.
(btw I have cleared jee studying in a tier 1 institute)
Sir what a mind blowing explanation for the mind blowing question.
I never thought this q.
Sir you are greatest teacher of physics, u will be ideal for me forever
God itself teaching student🙏🙏🙏🙏
Sadar pranam guru ji🙏🙏
Aaj class me mai genius banane ja raha hu🤫🤫🤫😅
EDIT;:
Maa me famous ho gaya maa😉
😂😂😂😂😂
Me too
Perfect explanation to get rid of childhood ambiguity by sir🙏
Sir you are just God for us students... I'm too from kanpur and hope for getting into iit and meet you
Verma sahab, aapne bahut achha explain kiya exponential rule ko jis mein aapke anusaar base ki value agar 1 ke alaawa aur koi bhi ho toh bhi ye equation satisfy ho jaayegi. Sorry sir, aisa nahin hai. Agar base -1 bhi ho, tab bhi ye equation satisfy nahin ho paayegi. Example 👇
(-1)^2 = (-1)^4
=> 2 = 4 (jo ki ganit ke niyaanusaar sahi nahin hai!!). Yaani ke base -1 bhi nahin ho sakta!!!! Isi tarah agar aap ghaur karen, toh base ki power 0, 1 aur --1 ye teeno nahin ho sakti, warna equation satisfy nahin ho paayegi.
Amazing Sir ❤️❤️
My respect to you increases day by day 🙏🙏
what a time to be alive, listening to him teach directly!
Power of Bihari ठेकुआ ( पकवान) sir
😅😅
who are the 99 people who disliked this video of such a great man. Hats off to you sir!!
Can’t believe it was so simple. Thankyou sir!
The thing is we can make jokes about them, but the effort and the happy enthusiasm he is expressing, are missing in our generation, its if we are not interested, just respect his concern!
The one-one property of exponential function requires the base to be>1. Since when base is 1, the exponential function will map each point in its domain to 1.
not >1 but simply "not equal to" 1, since it can be a negative value as well.
@@aditri-zz5se yup
Thank you sir... the question is too interesting and your explanation is too beautiful.... Pranam..🙇♀️
Sir, you are the inspirations for many like us.
Sir your concept is way beyond everything..so talented you are sir..pranam🙏
Brilliant que and mind-blowing answer
kitne acche se samjaya he sir , thankyou so much ❤❤🤯🤯🙏🙏
Hello Sir,
Good to see you again.
Myself Javed Ansari, I am a Maths Professor and teach 11th, 12th Maths include JEE MAINS & Advance.
I would like to enhance the statement.
"Since bases are the same their exponents would be equal, if the bases are not 1, -1, zero and infinity."
Thank God (also UA-cam algorithm), Mujhe solution mil gaya, mera dost na khud pata tha aur mujhe kafi dino se pareshan kar raha na tha ab uske muh pe solution dunga 🤣🤣...
Also Thanks for HC Verma sir...🙏🙏
This kind of innovative things only hc Verma sir can think 😅.
Such a great concept building ability you have sir. Thank you so much. You are a really great teacher❤
वाह sir आपने क्या concept बता दिये।
Sir aap maths ka kuchh course
Ya concept wala वीडियो UA-cam par ya koi website par start karte......... .
Class zero to higher tak.🙏🙏🙏🙏
HC Verma sir is so simple man in terms of life style but as well as so genius 😊😊
(-1)²=(-1)⁴, so, 2=4
0³=0⁸, so, 3=8
For bases -1 and 0, we also need to take care.
yes base needs to be greater than 0 and never be 1 for this property to be true
Yes Sir, For definition of exponential function and it's inverse logarithmic function base should be positive and not equal to 1.
@Mr. IITian
Yes, that's the limitation Sir.
Explanation here considers only positive bases.
We should understand that exponential functions are defined and monotonic on real set only when bases are positive and not equal to 1.
there is a simple answer to this, correlation does not mean causation, in your case, the reason why (-1) to the 2nd power and 4th power are equal is because they both equal -1, not because 2 equals 4, but if you want to go indepth for the proof (which is not so simple) , you have to go to a complex world since the logarithm of a negative number is not defined in the real world, see this
-1 on the complex plane is at an angle of 180 degrees or PI from the starting plane, while you can use that angle in the euler's formula, you have to notice that for these specific numbers -1, 1, i and -i, you can go around 360 degrees or 2PI around the plane and end up at the same point, so for (-1)^2 to (-1)^4 it is just off by an angle of 2nPI where n is an integer, theyre the same number but they have "different" angles
for 0, the log function is undefined as no number to a power can equal 0 other than 0, you can try to tackle this in the form of limits, since the limit as x-->0+ of Ln(x) is --infinity, you can look at it as
0^2 = 0^4
take the natural log on both sides
2 Ln(0) = 4 Ln(0)
using ln(0) as -infinity,
2 * -infinity = 4 * -infinity, hence
-infinity = -infinity, so it is true and not because 2 = 4
if you think about it, its like solving an equation,
lets say 4x = 2x, then you move like terms to one side and get
4x - 2x = 0, factor out an x
x(4-2) = 0, here we cant just say 4-2=0 as that just doesnt make sense, so only other possibility is that x = 0
hope this helps :)
Sir ko koti koti pradam.. proud to be a physics teacher..
One of the Great teacher ❤️❤️❤️
Well explained guru jee..a lots of love and respect from bihar😊
Sir you are a legend!💗😊
Kya baat hai sir.. log ka explanation bahut zaruri tha. Thanks a lot
This is how a student is supposed to be taught by his/her teacher.
But we all know how our teacher teach us in schools.
Wow perfect explanation first time i saw your video and just say wow
Guru ji zabardast
Respected Sir,
I'm a 12th class student from Nadia, West Bengal. After taking lessons from this video, I became very excited to know why *0! =1* and it's physical significance and it's role in our nature. Sir , kindly explain this.
A factorial of a number "n" is defined as
n!=n×(n-1)×(n-2)...×2×1
By this definition we can say that
n!=n×(n-1)!
Therefore
(n-1)!=n!/n
Putting n=1 we get,
(1-1)!=1!/1
Therefore
0!=1
Hence proved
ua-cam.com/video/Tib9uLg_-jw/v-deo.html
Here I find a video related to your question
sir koi sawaal nai banta aapke kitab ka kuch samajh nahi aata phir bhi aap great ho.. pranam
Respected Sir
My name is Anukalp and study in class 10. I have a doubt in physics in optics. We know that when a monochromatic light passes through prism it does not disperse and simply got deviated. But when a monochromatic green light (let assume the light source be laser beam) when passes through prism you will be astonished to see that inside the prism the green light will be (refracted) reddish-orange in colour and the emergent ray will be as usual green. Sir you can check also yourself by doing the experiment.
Sir, my question is that why the monochromatic green light is visible reddish orange in colour.
I will be very pleased to get the answer from you
Since you are in 10th right now, the explanation might be a bit complex for you, but I shall try to keep it as simple as possible.
When you pass light through prism, a part of it gets *REFRACTED* and the other gets *REFLECTED*
It means some energy of the photons(small packets of light energy;massless particles) gets radiated out while some remains in the prism.
Energy is related to Frequency of light as
E=hf [h is a constant]
=>E=(hc)/W [c is speed of light and W is the wavelength]
f=c/W from the relation velocity=frequency×wavelength
From E=(hc)/W
When E decreases, Wavelength of light increases in same proportion, and since wavelength of light decreases it changes its color.
Hope it helps
You need to understand that whenever a ray of light refracts, it's wavelength increases. To understand the reason you also need to know that frequency of a ray of light only and only depends on its source and it doesn't change throughout its journey, and you also need to know that speed of light decreases when it enters a medium. Therefore by the formula V=fλ if the speed of light changes in entering another medium then lambda(i.e. wavelength) should also change and your frequency remains constant through this process. Therefore, before refraction f1 = V1/λ1,
After refraction f2= V2/λ2.
Since f1=f2 therefore,
V1/λ1=V2/λ2, therefore,
V2 x λ1
-----------= λ2
V1
10 students should learn first.. how can we contradict on this topic... Hope u get it. Now learn as it is.
بہترین۔
Salute to you sir.
Sir please answer this question🙏🏻 -What is the difference between total power and equivalent power with respect to an electric circuit (because both of them have different formular with respect to series/parallel combination of the circuit)?
Ye sir ekdam se viral kese hone lage social media prr pehle to kabhi inki videos nhi dekhin or ab continue inki hi videos aati rehti h ❤❤❤
Amazing explanation sir ! I have a question though (not related the topic of the video) when the JEE advance paper is set what sort of qualities are being searched in a student ? I always had this question sir .
Love you sir, kya jawab hai pure rules theorem ke sath
With your written book named "the concept of physics" there are many memories are attached with me I have no that much capacity to bring out I bring it from a senior of mine after that I started my journey of physics from there I started to make follow your books directly which students usually prefer after make clear their concepts of theory for practice problems
There was many numbers of sleepless night with that book whenever I read it I was found myself on a other world of physics
Even I ignored many time other subjects like chemistry when I being much attached to physics
But thing is that many of my friends make laugh at me just because all over the night I stay outside the room that which was provided on my hostel just because nobody could make disturb in between while I study or practice problem
I was think over either the sleepless night will make pay me or not
But at last it make me pay for that sleepless night at 1st attempt I clear jeemain now I am student of btech 1st year of chemical engineering
If that day I will not choose my own road then their should be no a single change I could found between their and my life
They all are laughing at me because I was different from them
But I just make smile on their because they all are same
His smiling face is so attractive to the listener... 😅😊😊😊..
Great Sir. ❤❤
Sir just proved that Math is not just a subject, it's art.
He's good, except that he couldn't paint the entire picture.
Base = 1 is just one of the two exceptions to this rule.
The other being Base = 0
0^1=0^2 but 1 is not equal to 2.
@@raghavkapoor5663 "Since bases are the same their exponents would be equal, if the bases are not 1, -1, zero and infinity."
what a brilliant brain god had given to H C Verma sir and thank you for the best explanation sir 💯💯💯💯
Hlw HCV sir.
I'm a class 9th student,I want to ask a question ,it is running my mind all day.
Q . Can light be independent of heat(any kind of heat) ??
Help me to know this , sir
Huge respect to you nd your contribution!😊
LIGHT IS A FORM OF ENERGY WHICH GIVES US THE SENSATION OF SIGHT. Its a form of energy ,likewise heat is also a form of energy . wherever there is a dissipation of energy ,it is compulsory heat generation will be there, suppose you run for 1km, you will find yourself sweating due to heat generated in your body. light is too ,has the useful energy + unavailable energy conversion. THE UNAVAILABLE ENERGY IS THE HEAT ENERGY IN CASE OF BULB.
(H=i SQUARE RT ) IN CASE OF WATER HEATER ,THE USEFUL ENERGY IS HEAT ENERGY.
IF YOU SEE EM WAVES (LIGHT IS ALSO AN EM WAVE) , THERE IS DISSIPATION OF HEAT ENERGY IN THE FORM OF RADIATION.
SO LIGHT,HEAT,SOUND,CHEMICAL OR ANY FORM OF ENERGY IS INTERELATED, REMEMBER IT CAN NEITHER BE CREATED NOR DESTROYED ONLY IT CHANGES ITS FORM.
IN NUCLEAR REACTIONS TOO THERE IS SPLITTING OF URANIUM ATOM WHICH GENERATE HEAT ,THAT IS USED TO PRODUCE STEAM WHICH RUNS THE TURBINE TO GENERATE ELECRICITY.
OR IF YOU BOMBARD ANY RAYS THERE WILL BE HEAT GENERATION.
SO MY DEAR FREIND ,THERE IS EXCHANGE OF ENERGY EVERYWHERE, THE BIG EXAMPLE IS SUN ( NUCLEAR REACTION HAPPENS THERE) RADIATING SOLAR FLARES AND EM WAVES WHICH GETS TRAPEED AT NORTH AND SOUTH POLES TO FORM BEAUTIFUL AURORA . HOPE YOU UNDERSTAND THIS EXPLANATION, WELCOME.
@@ankushupman1505 awesome!
@@ankushupman1505 man u r a genius🔥
Thanks bro..now i got I ☺️!
@@ankushupman1505 hey , i have a another question. Plzz help me to get answer of this: Weigh of a dry cell decrease when it get dead ?
Genius sir after long time I see this type of teaching
Sir you are a legend.
Hats off to to sir...
Such an easy concept with unpredictable explanation.
1/infinity=0 then 1=infinity*0 =0
But 1not equal to 0
Sir please solve this problem
0•infinity is indeterminate form
This is not equal to zero
A simple amazing explanation sir ...
uncle ji almirah ka darwaaza kharaab karne ke baad aunty ji se maar khaane waale hai 😂😂
I'm overwhelmed 🥰. I respect you sir from deep inside my heart.
Pranam Sir
my question is that if other planets and celestial objects are moving around sun so why don't they mix with the sun because sir according to laws every heavy object attracts other objects which has smaller mass than himself and many teachers illustrates the moving of earth around sun in a net where sun is in the center and the object around it revolves and after some time it gets attracted to the object(sun) sir please clear my doubt every teacher rejected this question from starting and sir i have very much hope that you will definitely look up to this.
all planets and celestial bodies have constant velocities and they thus follow a stable orbit around the sun which is why they don't fall into sun, now unless mass of bodies or velocity of bodies change this path will not change however there are more factors in real life
@Pratham Kalgutkar You can also visualize this using the potential energy graph of earth wrt sun.
Bro In Advanced Physics You wil learn a concept that is due to resultant force on them .. They Got A Velocity In tangential direction of sun and one component make the Earth revolve and other one balances the sun ☀️ Gravitational pull .. So it's not able to get pulled by sun but I think If a very heavy Force Will be On the Side of sun will be applied .. That You think will take place but It Can Happen Because If some large Body come near our earth so it will take earth toward it attract it very heavily so We will not able to so sun's side .. I hope it's clear you More I will be happy if sir gives a beautiful explanation on it ...
@Pratham Kalgutkar, what you've mentioned is not right. You've written that all planets and celestial bodies have constant velocities. They DON'T. At no point of time is their velocity constant. At every point of time, their speed and direction is changing when rotating around heavier bodies.
Now, coming to the question of why doesn't Earth fall into the Sun, as demonstrated by the Earth-Sun model in a lab. The answer is this: It will, if there is dissipation of energy and sufficient time. These 2 conditions are met when that lab demonstration is done. Taking Sun at the centre of observation, there's no torque on Earth due to the force applied due to Sun's gravity(as gravity is a central force), therefore conservation of angular momentum can be taken into consideration. Therefore the Earth continues to revolve around the Sun. But there are other planets in Solar system and there's whole milky way galaxy.. they do exert force in various directions on Earth and Sun. It is a possibility that one day, very very far in the future, Earth could spiral in the Sun, or maybe not. Maybe it's orbit will change like the moon's orbit is changing. Earth's moon's orbit is changing every moment. There was a time in very distant past that moon was very close to Earth. And it WILL happen that moon will forever be gone from Earth's orbit never to be seen anymore.
Brilliant explanation by legendry personality 😘❤️
Sir what will happen if the base is 0?
Where will the contradiction arise if zero is the base in the following equation i.e.
0^2 = 0
0^3 = 0
Thus,
0^2=0^3
---> 2 = 3 {Because of same bases}
log 0 is undefined so base cannot be 0, the base always have to be greater than 0 and base cannot be 1
@@prathamkalgutkar7538 Oh, I get it now
Thanks :)
Best explanation for this would be basically 5^² means 5 multiplied twice but if we see in a way 5^¹ should mean 5 multiplied once but multiplied to whom? Simple answer is 1. So 5^³ is 5 multiplied thrice to 1. So 5^0 means 5 not multiplied at all to 1. Hence 5^0 means 1. Like wise 1^0 means one not multiplied to 1 so leaving us with just a 1
Cool! 💟
Albert Einstein abhi bhi jinda hai kya 😂
Great sir very very great guru
HC Verma sir is real guru of physics
bro is not sandeep sir 😎😎
Wow, i watched 1st time HC sir ,, his basis of explanation is outstanding ❤❤
Ham soche 2023 mai Albert Einstein kaha se aa gaya 😂😂
Ashman se
Not funny
What a teaching style sir🤩🤩 i am big fan sir
Wait is he teaching in cupboard? Huge respect 🙏
Yes.....He is writing on that, Great Respect to him🙏
Wow!!! Absolutely brilliant explanation
In school e are never taught explanation to such axioms