So you want “1 divided by 0” in real life?
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- Опубліковано 22 вер 2024
- So you want to see a real-life situation where we have to compute 1/0? Sure, here's an example for you when we are computing the slope of a hill (or the slope of a line). Enjoy!
This comment is from my previous video on why 1/0 is undefined: • 1 divided by 0 (a 3rd ...
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#math #1dividedby0 #dividingby0
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"I'm not Spider-Man," is exactly what a man who was secretly Spider-Man would say.
BpRp exposed🙀🙀🙀
Also, two guesses as to what Superior Spiderman's costume's colors are?
Yeah he looks like a real spiderman
It’s also what somebody who isn’t spider man would say
@@Echinacae im not batman but i do say "im batman" so it doesnt justify that
"Now use 1 : 0 in real life application" sounds like an emotionally unstable teen that failed math class in secondary school😂
simple problem using 1/0:
how much velocity do you need to cover 1 meter in 0 seconds?
0 seconds relative to you, that would be the speed of light c.
@@xinpingdonohoe3978 Yes, that is correct.
The closer you get to the speed of light, the harder it is to get any closer
You get to 99.999....% of the speed of light, getting to 100% will require infinite energy. Notice the infinite here.
The only way you can get to that speed is to have no mass, in other words 0 mass.
See the infinite and zero mentioned here? 1/0 = positive&negative infinity. But that doesn't exist, so it is undefined.
My point here is even in physics there is the 1/0 limit, and even the speed of light
@@sambouza speed of light=3*10⁸
And infinite ≠speed of light
@@sambouza sound right. Still, many things have zero mass, and though vacuums they indeed reach c. I suppose c is the equivalent to ∞, given that ∞ is meant to be greater than all numbers, and c is the maximal spacial speed, only reached by nullifying one's time velocity.
What Henry Stickmin taught me is 1 divided by 0 will give me a black hole. :O
Same man
Yeah kinda because if you tried to divide by 0 and say that this equals to infinity, this has a few problems .
1- if something divided by 0 equals infinity, then you should be able to do 0.∞ should equal to that? 0.∞ is a different problem in itself.
2- if let's say 1 divided by 0 is ∞, then also 2 divided by 0 should be ∞ as well and basically all other numbers as well. This would mean 1=2=3=4=5=..... which obviously isn't right
So yeah, it is kind of a black hole, trying to define 1/0 gets you into more trouble than not touching it at all
cuz black holes have infinite mass/density/gravity
@@xvii713 well not infinite, because we don't know how much is there. There is this idea of dark matter and dark energy but we can't even define them very well or quantify them since we don't know how to observe them
Suppose you are moving at a speed of 0 miles per hour, how long does it take you to travel 1 mile?
In Australia, it would be 23,323.8 years.
Aprox 5 hours.
at least twelve seconds?
It will take at least 1 hour, assuming 0.5 mph was rounded down to 0 mph and 0.5 miles was rounded up to 1 mile. That makes 0.5 miles/0.5 mph = 1 hour.
Not actually very long since the Earth is rotating and moving through space at a very fast rate.
1/0 might be useful in mirror/lens formula (1/v + 1/u = 1/f, for lens 1/v - 1/u = 1/f) where images can be formed at infinity
Say the price of gas is $5/gal and you have $100, you can buy 100/5=25 gal of gas. If the price is $1/gal, you can buy 100 gal. If price was $0.50/gal-->200 gal, but if gas is free, ie. $0/gal, that $100 can buy an infinite amount of gas and you'd still have the $100, therefore undefined.
I been watching your videos for a while. I love learning new math everyday but right now my favorite is calculus with all the crazy and it really fun to explore new math also it getting me prepared for the fall semester coming up.
I am reminded of how Galileo solved the problem of time of descent of a small body without regard to air resistance etc. - treated as a limiting case of that of rolling it down a smooth incline.
My previous video on why 1/0 is undefined: ua-cam.com/video/WI_qPBQhJSM/v-deo.htmlsi=5mB0FWzIGHM8BFw0
pin it!
at 4:10 you spoke a verbal typo but it's fine because we can see what you wrote
At 4:11 you mis-spoke stating "1 divided by 0 which is 0" when you actually mean "0 divided by 1 which is 0".
Similar at 6:20 "1/infinity"
V/R=I for ohnic conductors as resistance goes to zero current goes to infinity
After the negative-slope example, I was waiting for Wile E. Coyote to walk 0 feet and fall 1,000 feet.
4:53 that’s what someone who secretly is Spider-Man would say
The term infinity as a number is used in measure theory and the range of a positive measure: μ is the extended IR + := IR+ U {0,∞}.
Electrical calulations for calulating current flow through a circuit that contains one parallel path with 0 ohms of resistance and another parallel path given any non 0 ohm resistance.
Of course, this also means we have a situation where resistance calculation is +infinity. If resistance is + infinity, then current must be 0. If resistance is 0, then current is calculated as +infinity.
In reality, as resistance decreases, current increases inversely proportional, so deviding by 0 implies +infinity. Of course, in real life there is no true 0 ohms resistance conductor, unless you consider super conductors as actually being able to exist. The current will increase until enough heat is generated that the conductor can no longer handle it. The conductor will melt, leading an instant increase of resistance that then lowers the current back to 0.
I like your vdos sir. Love from India ❤❤
1/0 = the winner.
One man not beaten or divided by an opponent is free ( undefined).
if i have $1 and i have to divide it among 0 people that means i have an infinite amount of money! because it divides infinitely
Real money duplication glitch scientists don't want you to know about!
You're not part of the people the money is divided between, so there might be an infinite amount of money, but nobody would own it
@@davio14🥶🥶🥶
1/0 is (not defined) not infinity
@@sigma47477depends on the branch of mathematics
Gravitational force is proportional to the masses of the two objects and 1 divided by the radius squared. If an object approaches the center of a black hole, its gravitational force will keep increasing indefinitely until it becomes undefined.
Excellent explanation. Alternatively, I also like the cake divided by the number of present people. If nobody is there, how many pieces does everyone get?
Cut me a big ol' slice of π/2!
I have got a simpler "Real life" division with zero which gives different answers and I am not sure if the later is correct.:
imagine that there are 12 dollars.
if you divide them to 12 different people they get 1 dollar each. (12/12=1)
if you divide them with 3 people they get 4 dollars each (12/3=4)
if you keep them all for yourself you get 12 dollars (12/1=12).
dividing them with zero would mean to not split them at all, and nobody gets to keep them.
how do you that?
is it when you burn them? in that case 12/0=0 because the money seized to exist.
is it when you throw them away? in that case 12/0=12 because they still exist.
but wait, if 12/0=12 and 12/1=12 then does that mean that did I do something wrong?
I believe, yes.
we begun using natural numbers in order to express where the money have been and their sum, but now they haven't gone to anyone so natural numbers just will not do.
by using imaginary numbers you can express the fact that nobody owns the money anymore, while their existence hasn't been erased like in the case of the burn.
so I can argue that in the second case a more correct result would be 12/0=0+12i
again, I am not sure if my imaginary numbers answer is correct.
I believe that each "real life division" with zero should depend on its context.
maybe in other contexts the answer could differ.so I can argue that in the second case a more correct result would be 12/0=0+12i
oo its a good job i never got that question from a maths teacher, I already enjoyed hacking the schools computers and generaly running rings around our poor IT guy.
Considering what a sod i was at school - i imagine in a modern setting it would be "my example for a practical use of 1/0 is in the car park sir! btw if you want your car to start let me know ;) "
Imagine you have a pizza...
1) Can you cut the 1 pizza so that 2 people get an equal share? Yes, each gets 1/2.
2) Can you cut the 1 pizza so that 4 people get an equal share? Yes, each gets 1/4.
3) Can you cut the 1 pizza so that 8 people get an equal share? Yes, each gets 1/8.
4) Can you cut the pizza so that no one gets any? In other words, can you cut the 1 pizza so that there are 0 slices? No, 1/0 cannot happen. The pizza would have to not exist.
but cutting a pizza so 1/2 people get an equal share also does not make sense...
@@Fire_Axus this makes sense if we apply it to pizza man, if he gets half torn apart you heal him up by giving him 2 pizzas
1/2 * 2 = 1 👍
@@Fire_Axus Yeah this really only works for # of people greater than 1
@@kasufert More precisely, this only works for whole people. Sorry fractional people, you were not invited.
There are contexts in which 1/0=0.
The concept Tan-1 Θ you have defined here is just the traditional function arctg Θ which is by definition the inverse function of tgΘ or the integral of (1+x²)^-1.
"Saved by Zero" ~ The Fixx
You live in California. You need to go to Yosemite and climb the vertical rock faces.
Isn’t projective geometry such an application?
Literally you made maths very interesting .
Since 0=-0, how do you distinguish between this line going exactly up and exactly down?
4:09 "So we have 1 divided by 0"
-bprp 2024
1/0 in real life: suppose you want the average value of a set, but theres nothing in the set.
Actually, that'd be 0/0 since the total value in the set would also be 0.
@@phiefer3 not if the average calculation formula is rigged to always overestimate by adding 1 to the total
@@teelo12000 Then that's not the average...
@@phiefer3 Real Life isn't always fair.
@@teelo12000 "real life isn't always fair" lol
So here’s how I look at this for real life application, and people gave examples like pizza slices or dividing money among people, in those cases dividing by 0 means(for me) that the operation was not performed. So like dividing $100 among 0 people means money stay where they are untouched, same with pizza. Same can be said about distance, how do you get 100m in some direction in 0 seconds? You don’t, thus the operation was not performed. It’s stupid but imo it works as a silly explanation for a silly problem.
I would like to see a video on Terrence Howard's 1×1=2. I know you only do real maths, but he has a 12 mins video on this craziness and I really wanna see a real mathematician disprove this once and for all.
Can you write the proof here?
@@lakshya4876 Proofs of what? I'm not a mathematician. I can write out the equations he does to "prove" that 1x1=2, and say it's wrong, but I have no credibility.
@@JubeiKibagamiFezyou don’t have to be a mathematician to write a proof!
@@lakshya4876I just watched the video, and this is the logic:
suppose we have the equation x^2 = 2.
We know 2 = 2^(1/2).
We also know that [2^(1/2)]^3 = 2 * 2^(1/2).
Thus, the cube of the square root of 2 is equal to twice the square root of two. That is, the square root of 2 is also a solution to the equation x^3 = x + x = 2 * x where x is the square root of 2.
The above line is where Howard’s logic falls apart. This equation is true _if and only if_ x = sqrt(2). Howard takes this equation and essentially reconstructs math from that, despite this equation not being true for all (real) numbers x.
To show this in a mathematically rigorous manner, we simply need a counterexample to the claim that x^3 = 2x for all real numbers: let x = sqrt(5). Then we have sqrt(5)^3 = 2*sqrt(5), which are not equivalent.
\qed
@@JubeiKibagamiFez wdym no 'credibility' if it's a proof then it's a proof, no matter who wrote it.
For my teacher n÷0= Cantor's Singularity for any n#0
The problem is whether or not any partition can even be made by nothing.
Is there no partitions or infinite.
Supposed that the number of cookies that you have is 1, and the number of children that you have is 0. If you want to share the cookies among the children so that every child gets their own cookies (or parts of cookies) and all of the cookies get used up, then you can't, because 1÷0 does not exist.
I see. It didn't exist.
1:44: tan⁻¹ (“inverse tangens”) isn't good, because it could also be interpreted as 1/tan, which is cot. Better use arctan (“arcus tangens”) instead.
“arctan(inf)” is actually your input in WolframAlpha to get 90° without using superscript signs.
@@matemindak384 Normally you put an “arc” in front of it if you mean the arcus function. So, arctan, arcsin and arccos are the inverses of tan, sin, and cos. According to Wikipedia, that is the most common notation.
@@matemindak384 see en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Inverse_trigonometric_functions#Notation
From an algebraic point of view, ^-1 is a notation for the "operative inverse," so the meaning depends on the context.
You could also say tan^-1(a) =/= tan(a)^-1
@@Nikioko Please don't use Wikipedia as a definitive resource; there are better places on the internet to find reliable information. @matemindak384 is correct that this is an inverse trigonometric function. Furthermore, @gonzaloreyes2609 states accurately that we are looking from the algebraic view of an inverse operation. The reciprocal of the tangent function is cotangent; the inverse function is arctangent. "The inverse tangent or arctangent function, denoted by tan-¹ or arctan, is defined by tan-¹ x = y if and only if x = tan y and -π/2 < y < π/2." Mustafa A. Munem and David J. Foulis, _Algebra and trigonometry with applications_ , Worth Publishers, New York, NY, 1982, p. 362.
@@gonzaloreyes2609 For a function's inverse you would typically place the ^-1 before the input, so tan^-1(a), rather than tan(a)^-1
Good luck computing inverse tangent of "undefined" :) You can compute inverse tangent of positive infinity though.
Numeric value of 1/0 is indeed undefined, but the slope is pretty much "defined" by vertical line you drew. It is not "equal" to infinity either, but colloquially everyone understands what "infinite slope" is. So the slope is more like limit rather than like computation. Especially if we remember its relation to the first derivative...
YOU taught me difference between computation and taking limit.
Slope ain't gonna serve as real world example of 1/0
You lose
No, it makes perfect sense to call it slope infinity. The space of slopes is the real projective line, pretty much by definition.
For me (not really math guy), saying 1/0 = infinity is much more functional than saying it’s undefined. My reason is, back in secondary school maybe even primary, you’d ask a teacher this and they’d say undefined but in reality that doesn’t really mean much to someone who isn’t in the know. Undefined what? What’s undefined? If someone doesn’t understand the basics it’s useless to come at them with technical terms.
Saying it’s infinity gives it meaning, oh so it’s very big, but we then call it undefined because of “well yes (infinity) but actually no”, to someone who isn’t at that stage in mathematics yet.
The explanation that when the divisor gets smaller, the result gets bigger, hence the smallest divisor = the largest number makes much more sense. Also, that the gradient of a horizontal is 0, hence the gradient of a vertical is opposite that; infinity. You can then explain since infinity is not a defined term like 0 we can call it undefined for its proper term.
If you make it anything other than undefined then you will break a whole lot of rules that make math way easier to work with.
For instance, things like this:
1/0 = 1 * 1/0 = -1/-1 * 1/0 = -1(1)/-1(0) = -1/0
Therefore infinity is equal to negative infinity? That doesn't make much sense...
You could also multiply it by say 2/2 instead of -1/-1, and then you get 1/0 = 2/0. If x = 1/0, then that means 1/0 = 2(1/0), so x = 2x.. do you really want every time you write an equation like "x=2x" to not have it imply that x=0? Because if you're treating 1/0 to be equal to an actual number and not just undefined, then x=2x now has multiple solutions.
People say it's undefined because it *is* undefined. It does not compute to anything, because if it did compute to anything it would make doing basically anything in math way worse. Basic properties of addition and multiplication stop working when you try to define 1/0 to be equal to anything.
@@asdfqwerty14587
> Therefore infinity is equal to negative infinity? That doesn't make much sense...
It does make sense. That's how the real projective line works.
> it would make doing basically anything in math way worse.
Not really. There are contexts where it makes sense to define 1/0 and contexts where it doesn't. The slope example is of the former kind, you need a way to define every possible slope.
@@galoomba5559 There is no "defining it differently in different situations" if you define 1/0 to be equal to something for the real numbers, then it's always equal to it in the real numbers - if you want to have it behave differently you have to use a different numbering system altogether. If you define infinity to be equal to negative infinity, then it would also mean that "lim x-> infinity = -infinity" would also be a true statement which would be idiotic. It would mean that an equation like "y = 2x - x" is not the same thing as "y = x" (because what if x is equal to infinity?), division is no longer the inverse of multiplication etc..
You can create different numbering systems that work however you want (.. although most of the time they have huge problems with working with them that make any actual use of the system very questionable..) but if we're talking about the real numbers, there are a lot of good reasons that it is simply undefined.
@@asdfqwerty14587 In the real numbers, yes. But we don't have to work in the real numbers.
@@galoomba5559 Even in other numbering systems they still generally treat 1/0 as undefined for all the same reasons that the real numbers do - rather, when they want to work with infinity they generally use some other symbol to represent infinite and infinitesimal values (ie. 1/0 is still undefined but 1/(something infinitesimal) = infinity).
Treating 1/0 as anything other than undefined makes basically any numbering system nearly useless - it basically always comes with problems like adding a number to itself no longer being the same thing as multiplying it by 2 or multiplying and dividing by the same number doesn't always give you the same thing you started with etc..
1 divided by zero is undefined except when it is defined .... i hope bprp will invent a new mathematics that is consistent and defined and logically inoffensive over all sets and operations and definitions
its undefined cuz its infinity and infinity is not a number
@@hmmm6200tell me you don't know calculus without telling me you don't know calculus
That would be non-Gödelian maths, would it not?
@@simonmeadows7961 pls bro no godel here pls pls pls pls pls pls
@@hmmm6200 try some calculus
Honestly, I thought he was going to go with an elevator rather than Spider-Man. I am boring.
so arctan( undefined ) = pi/2, got it!
You said "1 divided by 0" with both 0/1 @04.13 and 1/0 at the end.
best example is a elevator to a vertical movement, but Spider Man works!
or Wile E. Coyote after he rushes off the cliff
same case come down from the verticle line then it sense like -infinite
This infinity is unsigned, positive and negative infinity are considered to be the same. Makes sense because positive and negative 0 are also the same.
in physics, it's simply infinity
No it isn't. It depends how you get to it, which will almost always be as the result of some limit which arises from the practical application you are applying it to.
If you get to 1/0 in physics and it is not explained by any limit, then it means that your model either can't handle this particular situation, or is simply wrong.
Fractals?
I thought there would be an elevator.
1/0 is solution of x+1=x btw 😂 1/0 is new number like imaginer
1/0 have property to absorb all number in additiion but no for k/0 k is konsntanta
(1/0)+1=1/0
(1/0)+2=1/0
(1/0)+3=1/0
(1/0)+i=1/0 😂
(1/0)+infinty=1/0 too 😂
But 1/0+2/0=3/0 😂
This like You try input water in full water tank
water in tank is constant when in full condition
I think 1 divided by zero is 1 because according to engineers, sometimes 0=1 😎😎
You have 1 cake and distribute it evenly to 0 people. So, how much of the cake does each of the 0 people get?
Answer: You just can't do that. It's impossible to distribute the cake entirely to nobody.
These are ratios, not really division. Here is a question, can I put 1 cookie into zero groups? That is division.
Can you put 4.79 cookes into 2.03-5.2i groups?
bruv literally proved 1/0 = positive infinity.
You have 5 cookies that you want to share equally with all your friends, but you have 0 friends. How many cookies does each friend get?
I was once coding for fun a platformer game in Javascript and got this problem in my way, I remember thinking "why is jumping so weird in maths???"
When I was in high school I found out that in a position/time function a vertical line is just teleporting
Shouldnt tan^-1(inf) be both 90 and -90 degrees?
The inverse tan can only output values between -90 and 90 degrees. I am pretty sure tou can't just plug infinity into it.
Or tan^-1or tan^-1(-inf)=-90 degrees
No otherwise inverse tangent would not be a function as it fails the vertical line test
Tan is periodic with period 180°, you have to restrict the domain to one of these periods for the inverse to be a function
Slope = 1/0 ... which is undefined OR infinity? Can mathematics make up its mind already?
or you can go read more about it in many sites (since you complained about it, unless you are trying to be funny, which isnt funny)
The slope is in some sense infinite
1/0 is always undefined always
1/0 is undefined on its own.
If it exists as a limit of some other expression, it can be inf.
e.g. lim(x-->0) 1/x = inf (or negative infinity, depending on which way x approaches 0 from).
It's undefined in the real numbers, infinity in the projective reals. What things are defined and how depends on the mathematical framework you're using. There is no universal one that everyone always uses.
∞ = ±∞, but not just +∞
so arctan(∞) = arctan(±∞) = arctan (∞) or arctan (-∞) = 90° or -90°
still okay~
Another famous application where 1 divided by 0 is used, and that is time travel. According to Einstein's Theory of Relativity, there is relative and absolute velocity. Relative and absolute velocity uses an arcsine-tangent function. If you are traveling at the speed of light, you take the arcsine of 1, which is 90 degrees. Since tan(90) = infinity, the absolute velocity is infinity at the speed of light. This means that if you travel faster than the speed of light, you can travel through time. Dividing by 0 makes everything possible, you just need to be brave enough to overcome the obstacles so you can break away, spread your wings, learn how to fly, and achieve anything one can fathom.
One proof that 1 divided by 0 has been used before is the Big Bang. Before the Big Bang, the universe is just one point: a singularity. However, in order for the Big Bang to happen, there must be division by 0. This is because a line segment itself has infinity points, and that if you want to extrude anything into the next dimension, you need an infinity, as if you want to get a 2D shape, you must extrude a 1D line of infinite length, and if you want to get a 3D solid, you need a plane of infinite area. Because of that, we think the Universe is a 4D tesseract with a finite 4D volume, but the 4D height is shrinking, causing the 3D cell where we live in to expand. Also, if we want to create a 2x2x2x2 Rubik's Tesseract, we need to divide a 2x2x2 Rubik's Cube by 0 to create an InfiniCube, and then extrude it into the 4th dimension.
How about a $7000 lottery won by 7 people versus a $7000 lottery won by no one? Or a cake eaten by 4 people versus a cake not eaten? Batting average for a player who only has walks on the baseball season?
The last example is 0/0, which is a different topic.
I have 1 cookie and i want to split it evenly between 0 people. Wtf i dont have anyone to split it with that makes it undefined
If I have $1 and divide it by $0 I still have $1... if i have $1 and multiply it by $0 i still have $1.. our mathematics system is rigged. The truth is we have been lied to our whole life🤔
I personally prefer the dividing by zero with food...how many cookies do you need to divide when you have no friends. It's a ridiculous question...sadly
pls solve this ques from my hw. If a=7-4sqrt3, find sqrt a + 1/sqrt a
bro do your math hw yourself
btw its VERY nice which is just to multiply top and bottom by its conjugate(7+4sqrt(3)) and then work it out and then take the reciprocal
then you get 1/a, and finally do a + 1/a
@Brid727 It worked. You did his hw.
@@robertpearce8394 still needs some brain to work it, so i just dropped the big hint and left the small bits for himself
@@robertpearce8394 I'm just a 9th grader from India.
We'll have to keep this in mind. Normally, there's a bunch of Indians saying "we all learn how to do this super advanced stuff in year 6" and so on.
Waiting for 1^♾️
1/0 is an imaginary number
no i think you are confused
In my opinion, the explanation in the video is not the truth. In real life, the division x÷n means: how many parts x must be devided into so that the sum of that parts give x? In real file n > 0, so x÷0 is meaningless. In math life, in my opinion too.
You have a pie. You divide it 0 times. You still have 1 whole pie. 1/0 = 1. "Uhm actually it's undefined because otherwise it breaks math" is an appeal to consequence. Isn't math supposed to be logically and internally consistent?
Math isn't real. The subject would be more accessible if teachers stopped confusing students with real-world examples and just admitted it's an arbitrary, imaginary approximation that's close enough. But then maths(and, consequently, mathematicians) would lose their mystique if they admitted they're just crude tools.
"Shut up and calculate" physicists stay winning.
Walking is too boring.
Imma go up 💀💀💀
Some part of nothing is nothing, No part of something is also nothing. OR 1/0 & 0/1.
1)0(0 0...@infinitum.
0)1(0