A mysterious Chinese contest problem.

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  • Опубліковано 1 жов 2024
  • We solve a nice math contest problem of unknown origin. Our techniques involve generating functions for certain types of integer partitions.
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КОМЕНТАРІ • 98

  • @SwistakMiecio
    @SwistakMiecio 4 роки тому +18

    There are two much shorter solutions which can be explained in a minute.
    1) There is a clear bijection between polynomials P satisfying these and pairs of polynomials (Q, R) such that they have coefficients from {0,1} set (possibly zero polynomials) and Q(2)+2R(2)=n. However each nonnegative integer has exactly one representation as value of such polynomials (called binary representation ;p). R(2) can take any of the values {0,1,...,floor(n/2)} and Q(2) is determined by R(2), so the answer is floor(n/2)+1.
    2) Second solution is based on "dynamic programming style" recursion and was already explained in previous comments. It just says that f(n)=f(floor(n/2)) + f(floor(n/2)-1), where f(n) is the answer for n and trivial induction proves f(n)=floor(n/2)+1. This recursive relation stems from considerations of constant term whose parity must be the same as parity of n

  • @goodplacetostop2973
    @goodplacetostop2973 4 роки тому +50

    8:27 Probably to avoid confusion with g and 9
    21:01 这是个好地方,可以停一下
    Hello folks, hi Michael. Take time for you, be gentle with you. Have a great day.
    Consider the system of equations
    2yz+zx−5xy = 2
    yz−zx+2xy = 1
    yz−2zx+6xy = 3
    Find the possible values of x, y and z.

    • @eldattackkrossa9886
      @eldattackkrossa9886 4 роки тому +3

      thank you for your service

    • @wjx8439
      @wjx8439 4 роки тому +7

      yz=3, zx=6, xy=2
      yz*zx*xy=3*6*2
      (xyz)²=36
      xyz=6/-6
      (x,y,z)={(2,1,3),(-2,-1,-3)}

    • @moonlightcocktail
      @moonlightcocktail 4 роки тому +3

      Let yz = u, zx = w, xy = v. Then we can solve for u,v, and w. We get:
      Yz= 3
      Zx = 2
      Xy= 6
      Z = +-1 and from there the others follow

    • @moonlightcocktail
      @moonlightcocktail 4 роки тому +1

      (Cursive Q is best q.)

    • @tavishu
      @tavishu 4 роки тому

      That looks like a STEP question

  • @alsinag
    @alsinag 4 роки тому +24

    The solution can also be written as b(n) = 1 + floor(n/2). This takes care of the even and odd cases altogether.

    • @megauser8512
      @megauser8512 3 роки тому

      I thought of this way to write it: ( n + 2 - (n mod 2) ) / 2

    • @f5673-t1h
      @f5673-t1h 3 роки тому +1

      @@megauser8512 another way: (n+1+[n is even])/2
      Where the brackets are the Iverson bracket.

    • @mryip06
      @mryip06 2 роки тому

      ½n + ¼cos(n π) + ¾

  • @kuba-xz3rl
    @kuba-xz3rl 4 роки тому +11

    Fun fact: this problem appeard also in the second round of Polish Math Olympiad 6 years ago

    • @SwistakMiecio
      @SwistakMiecio 4 роки тому +4

      That's true, it was proposed by me xddd

  • @lilellia
    @lilellia 4 роки тому +13

    I started crossing my q’s like that as well when I started working as a TA in undergrad. Was 100% to easily distinguish it from a 9. It was part of the feedback we got during training, though I already crossed my 7s and z’s.

  • @ikarienator
    @ikarienator 4 роки тому +6

    Your method is amazing and generalizable. I learned a lot!
    However, there is a much, much simpler way to solve this. Let the solution of the problem to be b(n). You can write P(2) to be C + 2 (another polynomial(2)), and the C goes from 0 to 3. If n is even the you choose C to be 0 or 2, when n is odd, you choose C to be 1 or 3. The b(2n) = b(n) + b(n-1), b(2n+1) = b(n) + b(n-1). Now that we have a recursive definition of b(n), we can do mathematical induction to prove b(n) = 1 + floor(n/2).
    In computer science, such problem won't have a closed form answer and is typically solved by dynamic programming (DP).

  • @viktartrafimuk4060
    @viktartrafimuk4060 4 роки тому +4

    I think, it can be solved much easier. P(2) = a0 + 2*a1 + 4*a2 + ... = n. Case of even n (n = 2k): a0 must be 0 or 2; for a0 = 0 we have 2k = 2*a1 + 4 * a2 + ... => k = a1 + 2*a2 + ...: k is equal to the same sort of P(2); for a0 = 2 we have k-1 = a1 + 2*a2 + ... This implies that b(2k) = b(k) + b(k-1). Similarly, for odd values b(2k + 1) = b(k) + b(k-1). For 0 & 1 b is obviously 1 (P(x)=2). Then we write a few next values: 2, 2, 3, 3, 4, 4, 5, 5... Then we notice the pattern and prove it by induction.

  • @samuelbam3748
    @samuelbam3748 4 роки тому +3

    Ohh that is a nice solution. I had a completely different approach:
    Notice that if the coefficients a_k are from {0,1} the answer is simply 1 since P(2) would be the unique representation of n in base 2. Now let E(x) and O(x) be such that E(x^2) + x*O(x^2) = P(x), that is if P(x) = sum a_k x^k then E(x) = a_(2k) x^k and O(x) = a_(2k+1) x^k. Then we have P(2)=E(4)+2*O(4). Notice that the coefficients of O and E are from {0,1,2,3} so E(4) and O(4) are the unique representation of two numbers a,b in base 4. So the number of polynomials P is equal to the numbers of a,b such that n=a+2b. Since we can set a:= n- 2b (n is fix) we just count the number of possible b, such that n>=2b and this is just all the bs from {0,1,..., floor(n/2)} so the answer is floor(n/2)+1

    • @otakurocklee
      @otakurocklee 4 роки тому

      Very nice! I was trying to find a way to use the base 2 and 4 representations but I couldn't find a way.

  • @wladwladsnotmyrealname9082
    @wladwladsnotmyrealname9082 4 роки тому +5

    I got the recursion:
    u(n) = 0 if n < 0 or n is not an integer
    u(0) = 1
    u(n) = u(n/2) + u((n-1)/2) + u((n-2)/2) + u((n-3)/2)

  • @AlwinMao
    @AlwinMao 4 роки тому +2

    I noticed that P(2) for just coefficients 0,1 is just a binary representation of a number. You can include 2,3 by encoding:
    n = a + b
    a and b are binary numbers
    if the dth coefficient is {0,1,2,3} then the dth binary digits of a,b are as follows
    0: a_d = 0 b_d+1 = 0
    1: a_d = 1 b_d+1 = 0
    2: a_d = 0 b_d+1 = 1
    3: a_d = 1 b_d+1 = 1
    So the question reduces to how many ways can you split a number into 2 numbers.
    When n is odd, b is always even and a is always odd. Note that whenever n is odd, the 0th coefficient must be 1 or 3, leaving a_d = 1
    When n is even, b and a are both always even. Note that whenever n is even, the 0th coefficient must be 0 or 2, leaving a_d = 0.
    This removes half of the possible splits.
    For example, for n = 10, 1+9 is not valid because b_0 = 0 always. Only 0+10, 2+8, 4+6 and reflections are possible.

  • @yashawasthi242
    @yashawasthi242 4 роки тому +4

    "1996 IN CHINA"
    Aye commander we goin in

  • @romajimamulo
    @romajimamulo 4 роки тому +4

    If I was doing this, I'd rewrite to ceil((n+1)/2) instead, but it's the same thing

  • @thephysicistcuber175
    @thephysicistcuber175 4 роки тому +3

    21:38 I'm disappointed you didn't write this as floor(n/2+1).

  • @aa-lr1jk
    @aa-lr1jk 4 роки тому +15

    Interesting. Here goes my solution, that i think is a bit simpler than that presented here (sorry for my gramatical errors) : Lets define A_n = {P(x) is in Z4[x], P(2)=n}. Notice that every polynomial in Z4[x] can be writen, in a unic way, as
    P(x)=x P1(x^2) +P2(x^2)
    with P1 and P2 in Z4[x]. Let be n_1= P1(4) and n_2 =P2(4). Notice that, because each natural can be writen in just one way in base 4, that P1 and P2 are the only polynomials in Z4[x] that are equal to n1 and n2, respectively, when evaluated in 4, so we have that the problem of finding the size of A_n is equivalent to the problem of finding the number of partitions of n as
    n=2*n1+n2
    We have that a generating function for A_n is
    G(x)=1/((1-x)*(1-x^2))
    We have then, when finding the coeficients of G(x), that
    A_n = (2 n + 3 + (-1)^n)/4
    Which, when setting n = 2n' and n = 2n' +1, gives the same result as yours.

    • @noahtaul
      @noahtaul 4 роки тому +1

      A faster way to finish is to find the number of ways to pick n1, which is floor(n/2)+1, then n2 is given for free.

    • @md2perpe
      @md2perpe 4 роки тому +3

      That seems to be basically the same idea as I got: a(0) + 2 a(1) + 4 a(2) + 8 a(3) + 16 a(4) + 32 a(5) = [..., a(4), a(2), a(0)] + 2 [..., a(5), a(3), a(1)], where [..., d2, d1, d0] is the non-negative number with digits ..., d2, d1, d0 when represented in base 4. The two [...] correspond to your n2 and n1 respectively. So we shall have n = 2 n1 + n2, where n1, n2 >= 0. Now we have something easier to count.

    • @gaufqwi
      @gaufqwi 4 роки тому

      You did it with a bit more formalism, but that's the way I solved it as well.

  • @otakurocklee
    @otakurocklee 4 роки тому +3

    That is really cool. I'm not used to generating functions. Really nice tool.

  • @CM63_France
    @CM63_France 4 роки тому +2

    Hi,
    For fun:
    5 "and so on, and so forth", 1 "and them so on and so forth",
    4 "all the way up to",
    2 "so, I'll go ahead and",including 1 "so, I'll go ahead and",
    6 "I'm going to go ahead and", or may be "I'll may be go ahead and" for some of them,
    3 "let's go ahead and",
    1 "we can go ahead and",
    2 "great",including 1 "ok, great",
    2 "ok, nice",
    1 "so no what I want to do",
    1 "what I want to notice",
    and the final "and that's a good place to stop".

  • @terencetsang9518
    @terencetsang9518 4 роки тому

    My solution:
    1. Write the polynomial as P(x) = \sum_{n>=0}{l_n * x^n}, where the {l_n} are 0, 1, 2, or 3.
    2. Note how P(2) = \sum_{n>=0}{l_{2n} * 2^{2n}+ l_{2n+1} * 2^{2n+1}} = \sum_{n>=0}{l_{2n} * 4^n} + 2 * \sum_{n>=0}{l_{2n+1} * 4^n}.
    3. Now the two sums can just be read as non-negative integers in base-4, hence there is a bijection between the set of non-negative integers and the set of {l_{2n}} (and {l_{2n+1}}).
    4. This reduces the problem to finding the number of non-negative integer pairs (N,M) satisfying n = 2N + M. It is then trivial to show that the answer is ceil((n+1)/2).
    EDIT: messed up the answer.

  • @vinc17fr
    @vinc17fr 3 роки тому

    Found in a few minutes: Let f(n) be the number of polynomials P(x) with coefficients in {0,1,2,3} such that P(2) = n. This is just a (redundant) binary representation with digits {0,1,2,3}. Obviously, for parity reasons, f(2n+1) = f(2n), i.e. just increase the last digit of a representative of 2n to obtain 2n+1. And by induction on the last digit, f(2n) = f(n) + f(n−1), f(n) corresponding to last digit = 0 and f(n−1) corresponding to last digit = 2. The first n values suggest f(2n+1) = f(2n) = n+1; then f(2n) = f(n) + f(n−1) is easily checked: if n = 2k+u with u ∈ {0,1}, then f(n) + f(n−1) = k+1 + k+u = n+1 = f(2n).

  • @azzamlabib4785
    @azzamlabib4785 2 роки тому

    I've been done similar question but with slightly different settings. But I'm sure this problem has same basic idea with the past similar question i've been done.
    Realize that the polynomial P(2) forms a "binary number" since we can express each polynomial as series of power of two. Now the problem is how we can set the coefficient which can only valued 0,1,2,3 to 0,1 so that it can forms "the binary number we know" (since if the coefficient still valued 0,1,2,3 it is the base-4 number rather than binary/base 2 number)
    To solve the problem, we can set ai = bi + 2ci where bi and ci = 0 or 1. Hence the polynomial can be decomposed into two different polynomial , lets say P(x)=B(x)+2C(x) where B(x) coefficients are bi and C(x) coefficients are ci.
    Thus by the definition of binary number B(2) and C(2) are exactly the binary number we know in math. Hence the number of P(2)=n is the number of different configuration of sum of the two binary number B(2) and 2C(2) (which is unique for each different configuration)
    The rest of solution is just ordinary combinatorial calculations.

  • @shokan7178
    @shokan7178 4 роки тому +2

    Ye I started crossing my qs after playing DDLC.

    • @krejman
      @krejman 4 роки тому

      Yuri Best girl

  • @demenion3521
    @demenion3521 4 роки тому +3

    this problem would be so much easier if the polynomial was evaluated at 4 instead of 2 xD but this method of generating functions is really a nice way of proving that the representation of integers in any natural number basis is unique

  • @myxail0
    @myxail0 4 роки тому +1

    I got a completely different solution using recurrence. If we denote number of such polynomials for a given n as f(n), then f(n)=z(n)+j(n)+d(n)+t(n) where z(n) is number of such polynomials that start with a_0 equal to 0, j(n) is s.t. starts with 1, d(n) -- 2, t(n) -- starts with 3. Then we can express each one of these as some formula of f(n) using the parity of n. That gives us the recursion of f(2n)=f(2n+1)=f(n)+f(n-1). The answer can be guessed and is proved easily with induction, being f(2n)=f(2n+1)=n+1

  • @johnsalkeld1088
    @johnsalkeld1088 2 роки тому

    It was from looking at the generating formula - the number of even numbered between 0 and n/2 i think - (because you are allowed to add a number of 2s and then have to use 1s to complete - and there is only one way once a number of twos have been chosen (one way i of you are still less than or at n) - then you have an even number plus a number that form n and so how many even numbers are there? Floor(n/2)+1 so that’s the value. I always liked the fact that combinatorics allowed for different ways of arguing the result.

  • @holyshit922
    @holyshit922 3 роки тому

    You had polish raid They dislike your solution because you used generating functions and for them solution with generating functions is not "normal"
    but i like your solution
    At the end solution can be presented with elementary functions without piecewise definition
    This nine dislikes probably come from other polish viewers

  • @kkanden
    @kkanden 4 роки тому +3

    6:28-7:00 me every time i get presented a problem

  • @sil1235
    @sil1235 3 роки тому

    This was also in Romania TST for IMO 1994.

  • @buxeessingh2571
    @buxeessingh2571 4 роки тому +1

    That way of writing "q" was commonly to make it clearly distinguishable from printed g when mixed with cursive.

  • @HAL-oj4jb
    @HAL-oj4jb 4 роки тому +1

    I write my q like this as well, and never noticed until now that you do the same! I do this because 1. my handwriting is terrible so it'd otherwise be hard to distinguish from p and g, and 2. because it looks really cool

  • @thayanithirk1784
    @thayanithirk1784 4 роки тому +2

    Finally china

  • @АлексейШубин-н8й
    @АлексейШубин-н8й 4 роки тому +2

    More integrals, fourier series, etc.

  • @bernat8331
    @bernat8331 4 роки тому +1

    14:15 In that infinite product, how do the last two numbers of the numerator cancel out? If you check for big numbers, you clearly see they keep increasing....

    • @aadfg0
      @aadfg0 4 роки тому

      For any particular value of n, the last 2 numbers (if we go far enough out) will be too large to contribute to the coefficient of q^n. We can apply this reasoning for every term b(n)q^n.

  • @riadsouissi
    @riadsouissi 4 роки тому

    Used different approach (apparently similar to others here) :
    notice n=sum(a(i) 2^i) is also = a(0)+2(sum(a(i) 2^i)=a(0)+2m and m is written the same way as n
    if n is even, then n=0+2x or n=2+2y
    so p(n) = p(x)+p(y) = p(n/2)+p(p/2-1)
    if n is odd, then n=1+2x or n=3+2y
    so p(n) = p((n-1)/2)+p((n-3)/2)
    after trying some values, we notice n jumps by one every even number.
    claim: p(n) = floor(n/2)+1
    which can be easily verified by induction using above two equalities.

  • @danielmilyutin9914
    @danielmilyutin9914 4 роки тому

    My shot on this. Use binary notation of coefficients as a_i = c_i + 2d_i. Then we write p(2) as sum(c_i*2^i) + 2*sum (d_i*2^i). The sums are unique representations of integer nonnegative numbers. Thus, one can write n = c + 2*d as equivalent task for some nonnegative integers c,d.
    Since, numbers are nonnegative there is finite set of partitions.
    If n is even, c has to be even, too. Thus we have c= 2*k. And n/2 = k + d. There are n/2 + 1 variants.
    If n is odd, we have c=2*k+1 and
    (n-1)/2 = k + d. There are (n+1)/2 variants in this case.

  • @noahtaul
    @noahtaul 4 роки тому

    Once you’re at 15:37, you can note that the form will be b(n)=A+B*n+C*(-1)^n, and you can plug in b(0)=1, b(1)=1, b(2)=2 to find B=1/2, A=3/4, and C=-1/4 which is the same answer that Michael got.

  • @galveston8929
    @galveston8929 4 роки тому

    any integer number has a binary representation which can be thought of a polynomial evaluated at 2 with coefficients {0,1}, thus the problem reduces to counting the ways to partition n as sum of an integer and an even number , namely, n=n1+2*n2 (so that the coefficients the polynomial after addition is from {0,1,2,3}). The corresponding generating function is 1/(1-q)*1/(1-q^2). one can also use the residue theorem from complex analysis to arrive at the same final result (as an alternative way to partial fractional expansion for the generating function).

  • @SwistakMiecio
    @SwistakMiecio 4 роки тому

    Oh well, I proposed this problem on Polish Mathematical Olympiad when it was used on its second stage 6 years ago, too bad it was featured in China years ago xd

  • @tomatrix7525
    @tomatrix7525 3 роки тому

    This was definitely a tricky one. That generating function would imo have required past experience with a problem similar to this.

  • @noumaneelgaou1624
    @noumaneelgaou1624 4 роки тому

    Let A be a subset of R
    We can partitioned A into sequence of interval (In)n>=0 ?

  • @wintersnake0
    @wintersnake0 4 роки тому

    You can try one of math Problem in Chinese college entrance examination.

  • @Stelios2711
    @Stelios2711 3 роки тому

    Generating functions are just a masterpiece of an idea.

  • @accountname1047
    @accountname1047 4 роки тому

    What a solid problem! Great stuff

  • @MatthewBouyack
    @MatthewBouyack 4 роки тому

    Really enjoyed this video! I don't have a lot of experience with generating functions so this solutions was enlightening.

  • @utsav8981
    @utsav8981 4 роки тому +1

    2nd comment!!!

  • @MTd2
    @MTd2 4 роки тому

    Will you continue the series on partitions?

  • @1346bat
    @1346bat 4 роки тому

    Love your channel a lot. Thanks

  • @whitedevil7458
    @whitedevil7458 4 роки тому

    Sir make videos on indian Olympiad

  • @thefranklin6463
    @thefranklin6463 4 роки тому +4

    6:37 taking a huge sniff of chalk dust

  • @benjaminbrat3922
    @benjaminbrat3922 4 роки тому

    I have a question about the telescoping part. You didn't prove that the numerator tends to 1 in the limit, it is only true if |q|

    • @MichaelPennMath
      @MichaelPennMath  4 роки тому +4

      Good point. The fact is, in many of these integer partition arguments involving generating functions, the "q" is considered a formal variable -- it doesn't take any values ever.

    • @georget2063
      @georget2063 4 роки тому

      @@MichaelPennMath Completely irrelevant to the original comment, but the telescoping product isn't infinite because you have a finite number of parts (1, 2, ..., 2^m) and so, you would have numerator left overs.

  • @tesset8828
    @tesset8828 4 роки тому

    Generating functions!!!

  • @whitedevil7458
    @whitedevil7458 4 роки тому

    You are awesome ❣️

  • @davidepierrat9072
    @davidepierrat9072 4 роки тому

    two-tuple lol

  • @garvittiwari11a61
    @garvittiwari11a61 4 роки тому +1

    And please start a series for math contests too sir....

  • @garvittiwari11a61
    @garvittiwari11a61 4 роки тому

    For my math Olympiad practice , I cone to this channel...

  • @georget2063
    @georget2063 4 роки тому +1

    14:09 is wrong. Why would it be an infinite telescoping product if you have a finite number of parts (ie 1,2,..., 2^m)?

    • @otakurocklee
      @otakurocklee 4 роки тому

      I don't understand what you mean. n goes to infinity. Why do you say finite number of parts?

    • @georget2063
      @georget2063 4 роки тому

      @@otakurocklee The generating function in this case is equal to the product of 1 + q^k + q^2k + q^3k, where k is in the set {1, 2, ..., 2^m}. Obviously, that set's cardinality is finite. Therefore, we cannot have an infinite telescoping sum.

    • @georget2063
      @georget2063 4 роки тому

      @@otakurocklee If you still don't understand, let me explain it in a different way. If it were infinite, that means that since each coefficient of 1+q^k +q^2k + q^3k is 1, then each b(n) is definitely greater than 0. However, that is a contradiction because every integer K > 3+3*2 +3*2^2 + ... + 3*2^m cannot be partitioned under such circumstances, and so b(K) must be 0.

    • @otakurocklee
      @otakurocklee 4 роки тому

      @@georget2063 What is m here? I don't understand where it is coming from. The coefficient of q^k in the generating function gives the number of polynomials such that P(2) = k. If the coefficient of q^k is zero, then that means there are no polynomials such that P(2) = k. That doesn't make sense for any integer k. Any integer can be represented in binary... that gives us at least 1 polynomial with coefficients 0,1. for example 23 = 2^4 +2^2 +2^1 + 2^0, which is 1 polynomial (x^4+x^2+x+1) that satisfies the conditions. Same for any integer. So the coefficient of q^k has to be greater than or equal to 1 for every k.

    • @georget2063
      @georget2063 4 роки тому

      @@otakurocklee m is the degree of P. Honestly, I don't see how you don't understand. Do agree with me that the greatest number that can be written as a sum of at most 3 powers of 2 in {1, 2, ... 2^m} is 3*(1+2+...+2^m)? If, you do understand then you should also understand that for any K greater than that number, b(K) is 0. But if the telescoping sum were infinite, there would exist G's > 3(1+2... + 2^m) such that b(G) > 0, which can't be. So the product is not infinite.

  • @martinnyberg9295
    @martinnyberg9295 4 роки тому +1

    Shouldn’t this be part of the overkill series? Isn’t it obvious that ANY n can be expressed by an infinite number of those polynomials using only 1 and 0 as coefficients (and using an arbitrarily long “tail” of 0 coefficients) since that will be the same thing as the binary expression of n? 🤔

    • @martinnyberg9295
      @martinnyberg9295 4 роки тому

      Or is that cheating? The statement of the problem does not explicitly say that polynomials only differing in infinite tails of zeros is to be viewed as the same polynomial.😏

  • @grzechu9751
    @grzechu9751 4 роки тому

    cool question