Actually Lp doesnt contain functions. It wouldnt satisfy the positive definite property of norm since there would be many functions with norm equal to zero. You need equivalence relation that groups functions that are equal almost everywhere for it to work.
yes this is obvious by traingle inequality !f+g! < !f! + !g! then take integration on both sides. I think u must have understant if not i can explain u latter. tell me
Actually Lp doesnt contain functions. It wouldnt satisfy the positive definite property of norm since there would be many functions with norm equal to zero. You need equivalence relation
that groups functions that are equal almost everywhere for it to work.
Sir you use holders inequality for proving the minkowskis inequality but you use p norm on both the functions f,f+g why sir?
Nice lecturing sir. Well explanation. Thnku sir
While proving Lp is vector space, in second step absolute value of (f+g)^p
If the function is in lp space is there is any possibility of existing continuous function ??
Thanks sir excellent explanation
Thanks alot sir....
Thank u so much...sir
thanks for video
Lovely sir
Can anyone please tell me when does Sir prove completeness for Lp when p=1?
yes this is obvious by traingle inequality !f+g! < !f! + !g! then take integration on both sides. I think u must have understant if not i can explain u latter. tell me
what is the title of the book?
An Introduction
to Measure and
Integration by Inder K Rana. He wrote his own book!
thx alot prof. please can you show us how we proof hölder inequality using minkowski inequality
Difference btw Lp and Lq... please say
You should ask how to proof Minkowski inequality by using Hölder and not the oposit.
You Can do it by using Jensen inequality......
Good