at 1:53 , you start to make an argument that because A1 is much greater than A2, therefore v1 can be assumed to be negligible. While this make intuitive sense, the value of the A1 and A2 are not in the Bernoulli equation at all, and your final value of v2 is completely independent of both A1 and A2. I think you're missing a continuity of volumetric flow argument that A1V1=A2V2, thus if A1>>A2, then V1
at 1:53 , you start to make an argument that because A1 is much greater than A2, therefore v1 can be assumed to be negligible. While this make intuitive sense, the value of the A1 and A2 are not in the Bernoulli equation at all, and your final value of v2 is completely independent of both A1 and A2. I think you're missing a continuity of volumetric flow argument that A1V1=A2V2, thus if A1>>A2, then V1
how do you work the water drainage flow rate it out if you have flow rate of water and the size of the pipe? so 45m3h and the pipe is 90mm?
Great explanation, thank you! I really appreciate it!
How do we convert the g*h=1/2*g*v2/ potential from top to kinetic energy
what is the emptying time of the tank
From -dh.A1=A2.sqrt(2gh)dt --> (A1/A2) -dh/sqrt(2gh) = dt --> T = (A1/A2) sqrt(2H/g). H : initial height of water of the tank.
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What if the vertical pipe out the bottom of the tank was 50metres long and you wanted to know the velocity out of the pipe then?
what if it is not open to atm?
If the top isn't open, then it won't leak.
@@StudyForceOnline what if the tank is constantly pressurized to maintain 25 psi?
yes
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Hi