Prove that e^x maps onto the positive real numbers (ILIEKMATHPHYSICS)

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  • Опубліковано 17 гру 2024

КОМЕНТАРІ • 10

  • @davidbrisbane7206
    @davidbrisbane7206 19 днів тому +4

    It's had to understand why you don't have more subscribers.

    • @SimsHacks
      @SimsHacks 19 днів тому +5

      Most people who "like math" actually like calculus and solving problems. Only a few prefer rigorous proofs. But I'm really glad this guy does it.

  • @poghuman8676
    @poghuman8676 19 днів тому +6

    In your definitions, why take the absolute value of e^x - 0? What’s the reason for subtracting 0 (love your content btw)

    • @iliekmathphysics
      @iliekmathphysics  19 днів тому +5

      the "|e^x - 0| < epsilon" is just copying from the general definition of "limit of f(x) as x approaches negative infinity equals L"; in general the last part of the statement would say "|f(x) - L| < epsilon" so L is just replaced with 0
      you could just say "e^x < epsilon" instead of "|e^x - 0| < epsilon" in this case since both statements are equivalent

    • @poghuman8676
      @poghuman8676 19 днів тому +1

      Thank you!

  • @bra1nwave172
    @bra1nwave172 19 днів тому

    Why do you put brackets around the "know" statements?

  • @ReaganStoleMyDick
    @ReaganStoleMyDick 19 днів тому +1

    This isnt a critique or anything, this is the usual proof youll find of this fact (or a version of it); i have a question. The hypotheses of IVT require that our function be from I to R, where I is a subset of R. But the hypotheses of your proven statement give that our function is from R to (0, infty). How can we justify invoking IVT here?

    • @frankqiang6318
      @frankqiang6318 19 днів тому +1

      Of course expanding the codomain from (0, infty) to R is fine. To get the domain as an interval I, simply restrict the domain of e^x to [a, b]. This restriction will still be continuous on [a, b], so we may apply IVT to the restriction.

    • @ReaganStoleMyDick
      @ReaganStoleMyDick 18 днів тому +1

      ​@frankqiang6318 Using R as the domain is fine, the issue is the codomain. The exponential function is not surjective or "onto" when considered as a function from R to R. So my question remains, how can we justify invoking IVT here? Edit: I know this proof works, I was moreso curious how the creator of the video would tackle this question

  • @blackplays4452
    @blackplays4452 17 днів тому

    This is weird notation in your "Theorem". You dont wreite exp(x):R -> R, but f: R -> R, x |-> exp(x)