But he used it only for sine , moreover he didnt explain why limit ((cos(h)-1)/h ,h=0)= 0 so even this derivative is incomplete BTW it is easy to express the derivative of sine using limit (sin(h)/h,h=0) only
@@holyshit922he said that proof is out of scope of this video and he also said you can just use your calculator to figure out the proof as h approaches 0
13:32 I think we have negative sign in the derivatives because in the complimentary angles, we have a negative sign with x ie. {[Pie/2] -x} and d(-x)/dx= -1.
The trouble doesn’t end without having to prove the last steps. lim sin(h)/h as h goes to zero needs proof and using the calculator is not a proof. Likewise the other lim that has the cosine term needs proof as well. Other than that, the methodology of the proof looks good.
@@klepikovmd how lol, it's just an exponent of -1 clearly written edit: oh wait you're referring to when you write inverse cosine, nevermind. I do agree that arccos(x) is probably better
Inverse trig aside, I think cos²(x) should be cos(cos(x)). You literally can already write cosine squared as cos(x)² or (cos x)². Why make a new notation for something that already has a notation just as simple?
This helped me so much! now instead of trying to remember all of the derivatives I can find them myself if I forget!
This man qualifies to take all the students in the world. I will not get tired of sharing your videos, they are really helping 100%
Honestly these are really good exercises for practicing the limit definition of a derivative
But he used it only for sine , moreover he didnt explain why limit ((cos(h)-1)/h ,h=0)= 0
so even this derivative is incomplete
BTW it is easy to express the derivative of sine using limit (sin(h)/h,h=0) only
@@holyshit922he said that proof is out of scope of this video and he also said you can just use your calculator to figure out the proof as h approaches 0
@@holyshit922just find your own d/dx cosx
I don't care it's easy or hard; because it's still Math and it's matter.
Therefore I watch it.
Your love for mathematics is contagious ❤.
13:32 I think we have negative sign in the derivatives because in the complimentary angles, we have a negative sign with x ie. {[Pie/2] -x} and d(-x)/dx= -1.
Thank you so much, Sir! I had to disable adblocker and log in my account to effectively show my gratitude. 😍😍❤❤
Thank you. You didn't have to do that but I appreciate it! : )
your video is amazing😭 keep doing it i finallly understand why the derivatives of trig is like that thank you
In calculating of the derivative of sinx we can also use the sin c - sind= 2 cos((c+d)/2)*sin((c-d)/2)
I love your videos. Btw, when u calculated cotx, by writing it as cosx/sinx, i calculated it by typing it as 1/tanx instead
Thank you for this and all the videos you've done they're really helpful
Why are you holding a pokeball
so that when we faint from math you can capture us?
جزاك الله خيرا
The trouble doesn’t end without having to prove the last steps. lim sin(h)/h as h goes to zero needs proof and using the calculator is not a proof. Likewise the other lim that has the cosine term needs proof as well. Other than that, the methodology of the proof looks good.
You are one of the best
Thanks a lot man!!! Keep up this great work!
When the top of your marker fell down, it remembered me the *Matrix* ; but the *Matrix movie* !
derivative of (no “co”)+(trig function) = doesn’t have a minus
derivative of “co” + (trig function) = has a minus
THANK YOU SO MUCHH SIR, YOU HELP ME A LOT ABOUT MY ASSIGNMENT
this is very epic
Thank you sir
Brilliant❤
Doesn’t Chen Lu take place no matter what, technically? d/dx (x) = 1, it would be d/dx (sinx) = cosx * 1, which is just cosx
Just food for thought
Yes, it's just a trivial case of Mr Chen Lu, since multiplying by 1 is a trivial case that leaves the rest of the expression alone.
Please how does sinH give you cosH 😢, why can't i understand this 😢😢
I love his pokemon.
Bro ...how i can get the formulas written on your shirt..in pdf form..?
thankkkk u sirr
This -1 thing is too confusing. Our calculus teacher taught us to never use it and write arc instead
there shouldn't be any ambiguity if you write it as (cos(x))^(-1)
@@lumina_ too complicated
@@klepikovmd how lol, it's just an exponent of -1 clearly written
edit: oh wait you're referring to when you write inverse cosine, nevermind. I do agree that arccos(x) is probably better
Inverse trig aside, I think cos²(x) should be cos(cos(x)). You literally can already write cosine squared as cos(x)² or (cos x)². Why make a new notation for something that already has a notation just as simple?
Haha secx
Please suggest AP calc books for Indian students'