I bind one not to give in to any malignment in joining another in detauchery in my life, the lives of my family, friends, colleagues, neighbours, acquintances, opponents and the body of Christ, binding myself not to be unequally yoked with and have any common share with those in debauchery and maligning of others, in accordance with this word and 1 peter 4:4-6, 2 corinthians 6:14-18 in the name and blood of Jesus Christ, amen and hallelujah!
The problem with this interpretation is that it isn't only a complete reconstruction of the verse, but it takes away from the Gospel being something shared with those who came before Christ's resurrection. All of the people who died before Christ's resurrection never had a chance to accept His salvation. Do not say they were justified by their works, because if you could be justified by works, Christ died in vain (Galatians 3:21). All the people in Sheol (The Realm of the Dead) needed to hear the Gospel. Otherwise They could not be saved.
Those who believed in Gods word then, were justified Because the word is Jesus Christ( john 1:14) Just like righteousness was accounted to Abraham (Romans 4:3)
@@SylviaQuarm I like your answer. However, let’s see how it plays out in the following scenario: There were two Jews in Alexandria around the year 30 AD. They were devout Jews who followed the Law of Moses. The first man died before Jesus’ death and Resurrection. The 2nd man died after Jesus’ Resurrection. Neither man ever heard the Gospel. According to your statement, the 1st man will be justified by his faith for believing God’s word. Yet, the 2nd man lived and died under the New Covenant. He believed the scriptures but had no personal faith in Jesus Christ, having never heard the Gospel. Will he also be justified or will he be condemned for lack of faith in Christ?
I have to say that I am most at peace with the interpretation given by this video and see your point as well, but I would like to ask for your opinion on something. The reason I was so confused by this text and sought to find explanation somewhere was that, to me, the idea of the Gospel being preached to dead men means that there is still salvation for them, but at that point, seeing as to how they can very obviously see there is an afterlife, as well as having JEsus himself preach it to them, wouldn't (to use perhaps an unfair word) it give them an advantage? To be honest I myself have a poor understanding of our eschatology. I am lead to believe, from different verses, that once dead we will be with Christ (references: Luke 23:43, Philippians 1:23, 2 Corinthians 5:8), not made to wait until the day of Judgement. Simultaneously, I am unsure how to adapt this to a non believer dying, or what about the people that died before the resurrection and ascension of Christ, like you pointed out. I am really curious about what you would have to say on the matter
From that passage it says earthly kings of nations. But God will appoint kings who are glorified saints to co-reign with Christ during the millennium (Rev 1:6. Rev 5:10, Rev 20:4-6, 2 Tim 2:11-13.)
It’s an invitation to those who are invited to the marriage feast of the Bride and the Lamb. There will be wedding guests. They will be people who are written in the Book of Life but are not the Bride of Christ. Not everyone who will live on the new earth, that Jesus will create, lives in the Holy City/Kingdom of God. These people will visit but not live there because they’re not the Bride. (Rev 19:7-9, Rev 19:27.)
It makes perfect sense for God to preach to the dead. Does God not care about some random caveman who died with out ever knowing the truth of the living Christ? What about all the trillions of souls born in other times other nations what if them? Are thier souls not precious to God? Is God unfair? It only makes sense the lord would preach to the dead. It makes everything fair.
Pastor, western Christians, especially in the Pentecostal and Charismatic groups will not hear this. I know this to be true because it is among these groups God has stuck me for the time being. It can be very troublesome to bring out the truth of God's word among them. I have another angle I put here for consideration: Preached the Gospel: 1Pe 1:12 It was revealed to them that they were serving not themselves but you, in the things that have now been announced to you through those who preached the good news (Euaggelizo: gospel) to you by the Holy Spirit sent from heaven, things into which angels long to look. 1Pe 1:25 but the word of the Lord remains forever.” And this word is the good news (Euaggelizo: gospel) that was preached to you. 1Pe 4:6 For this is why the gospel (Euaggelizo: gospel) was preached even to those who are dead, that though judged in the flesh the way people are, they might live in the spirit the way God does. In the first two instances, we know Peter is saying that the gospel is preached to living people. 1Pe 1:12 we see this with the word "you". And in 1:Pe 1:25 we see this with the word "you". But in 1Pe 4:6 Peter says the gospel is preached to those who are dead. Why change the wording at this point from "you" to "dead"? In the first two instances, 1Pe 1:1:2,25, Peter is clearly talking to saints who have already heard the gospel and were saved. In 4:4-5 I think Peter is referring to people who are dead in their trespasses and sins - those living in debauchery, those maligning, the target audience for the gospel, so their dead lives may be judged by God's word, convinced of sin, with the hope that they become partakers of the life-giving spirit and become saints. Food for thought
God will judge both the dead(sinner) and the living (righteous) .
When we read with this in mind, the whole passage will make sense. 🙏
Great, thank you.
Thanks for this wisdom.. amen
I bind one not to give in to any malignment in joining another in detauchery in my life, the lives of my family, friends, colleagues, neighbours, acquintances, opponents and the body of Christ, binding myself not to be unequally yoked with and have any common share with those in debauchery and maligning of others, in accordance with this word and 1 peter 4:4-6, 2 corinthians 6:14-18 in the name and blood of Jesus Christ, amen and hallelujah!
A thousand times YES!!! That is the correct meaning in my view. Kudos to you!!
Very helpful! PTL!
You have to go back to Peter 3:-19. The ones before Christ never heard the message of Christ but the ones alive now have already.
The problem with this interpretation is that it isn't only a complete reconstruction of the verse, but it takes away from the Gospel being something shared with those who came before Christ's resurrection. All of the people who died before Christ's resurrection never had a chance to accept His salvation. Do not say they were justified by their works, because if you could be justified by works, Christ died in vain (Galatians 3:21). All the people in Sheol (The Realm of the Dead) needed to hear the Gospel. Otherwise They could not be saved.
Those who believed in Gods word then, were justified
Because the word is Jesus Christ( john 1:14)
Just like righteousness was accounted to Abraham (Romans 4:3)
@@SylviaQuarm I like your answer. However, let’s see how it plays out in the following scenario: There were two Jews in Alexandria around the year 30 AD. They were devout Jews who followed the Law of Moses. The first man died before Jesus’ death and Resurrection. The 2nd man died after Jesus’ Resurrection. Neither man ever heard the Gospel. According to your statement, the 1st man will be justified by his faith for believing God’s word. Yet, the 2nd man lived and died under the New Covenant. He believed the scriptures but had no personal faith in Jesus Christ, having never heard the Gospel. Will he also be justified or will he be condemned for lack of faith in Christ?
I have to say that I am most at peace with the interpretation given by this video and see your point as well, but I would like to ask for your opinion on something. The reason I was so confused by this text and sought to find explanation somewhere was that, to me, the idea of the Gospel being preached to dead men means that there is still salvation for them, but at that point, seeing as to how they can very obviously see there is an afterlife, as well as having JEsus himself preach it to them, wouldn't (to use perhaps an unfair word) it give them an advantage?
To be honest I myself have a poor understanding of our eschatology. I am lead to believe, from different verses, that once dead we will be with Christ (references: Luke 23:43, Philippians 1:23, 2 Corinthians 5:8), not made to wait until the day of Judgement. Simultaneously, I am unsure how to adapt this to a non believer dying, or what about the people that died before the resurrection and ascension of Christ, like you pointed out. I am really curious about what you would have to say on the matter
This seems to only be a difficult passage if you're a calvinist.
Are the kings of the Earth in Revelation 21 the same kings mentioned in earlier chapters?
From that passage it says earthly kings of nations. But God will appoint kings who are glorified saints to co-reign with Christ during the millennium (Rev 1:6. Rev 5:10, Rev 20:4-6, 2 Tim 2:11-13.)
Who is the Spirit and Bride saying "Come!" And drink to in Revelation 22:17?
The spirit is the spirit of God and the bride is the church we are the bride of Christ because we are married to the lord.
It’s an invitation to those who are invited to the marriage feast of the Bride and the Lamb. There will be wedding guests. They will be people who are written in the Book of Life but are not the Bride of Christ. Not everyone who will live on the new earth, that Jesus will create, lives in the Holy City/Kingdom of God. These people will visit but not live there because they’re not the Bride. (Rev 19:7-9, Rev 19:27.)
It makes perfect sense for God to preach to the dead. Does God not care about some random caveman who died with out ever knowing the truth of the living Christ? What about all the trillions of souls born in other times other nations what if them? Are thier souls not precious to God? Is God unfair? It only makes sense the lord would preach to the dead. It makes everything fair.
Pastor, western Christians, especially in the Pentecostal and Charismatic groups will not hear this. I know this to be true because it is among these groups God has stuck me for the time being. It can be very troublesome to bring out the truth of God's word among them. I have another angle I put here for consideration:
Preached the Gospel:
1Pe 1:12 It was revealed to them that they were serving not themselves but you, in the things that have now been announced to you through those who preached the good news (Euaggelizo: gospel) to you by the Holy Spirit sent from heaven, things into which angels long to look.
1Pe 1:25 but the word of the Lord remains forever.” And this word is the good news (Euaggelizo: gospel) that was preached to you.
1Pe 4:6 For this is why the gospel (Euaggelizo: gospel) was preached even to those who are dead, that though judged in the flesh the way people are, they might live in the spirit the way God does.
In the first two instances, we know Peter is saying that the gospel is preached to living people. 1Pe 1:12 we see this with the word "you". And in 1:Pe 1:25 we see this with the word "you".
But in 1Pe 4:6 Peter says the gospel is preached to those who are dead. Why change the wording at this point from "you" to "dead"?
In the first two instances, 1Pe 1:1:2,25, Peter is clearly talking to saints who have already heard the gospel and were saved. In 4:4-5 I think Peter is referring to people who are dead in their trespasses and sins - those living in debauchery, those maligning, the target audience for the gospel, so their dead lives may be judged by God's word, convinced of sin, with the hope that they become partakers of the life-giving spirit and become saints.
Food for thought
The point is that "dead in sin" is NOT "Dead like Lazarus".
God will judge both the dead(sinner) and the living (righteous) .
When we read with this in mind, the whole passage will make sense. 🙏