@@jezzy3472 the income effect is not constant, The total change in demand is equal to price plus income effect, but since substitution effect's sign is negative, as demand is negatively related to demand, negative of substituting plus positive sign of income effect, (since marshalian demand's are non decreasing in increasing income), now inorder to isolate the total change due to substitution effect we substract , It will be clear if you consider some examples online or from any book
@@EconomicsinManyLessons sir, I have a doubt.... Derivative of expenditure with respect to price is equal to hiksian demand function. Than how X could be ordinary or Marshallian demand function? Please reply
one of the most complex concepts of consumer behavior.. finally understood after 2yrs.. a big big thanks
amazing work. You made it look easy. In Kenya we say, Barikiwa sana(Be blessed a lot)
Amazing video!! I couldn't find a better explanation on the internet, very easy-to-follow.
Thanks a lot for your work!!!!
GOD!!!! THANKS SO MUCH. I HAVE MICRO MIDTERM 10 HRS LATER AND NOW ITS 3AM
good fucking luck to anyone who needs to learn this
This is really clear and concise !! Thank you!
taught it better than uni lecturers
Thank u so much Sir.. The Explanation Is Easiest And Understandable. ❤❤🙏🙏🤩🤩
Thank you for this easy explanation.🙏
Awesome! Very clear explanation!
Absolutely incredible video! Thak you so much!
Dude you are amazing,
thank you very much sir
Amazing!!
Thanks a lot. This video is very useful for me.
Thank you very much Sir.
thanks
Thank u so much sir❤
Thank you Sir. I think it should X^c after the envelop theorem of the expenditure function instead of x. I am not sure whether it is correct.
There is some confusion regarding enevelope theorem. I couldn't get it. How the the partial derivative came out to be x only?
How you teach with this low voice?
SIR WHY "TOTAL EFFECT OF PRICE CHANGE=SUBSITUTION -INCOME"
RATHER THAN ADDING THOSE TWO
?????
@@mohammadzaid4100 because we looking to isolate the changes in demand for good x, while holding income effect constant,
only cosidering substituation effect due to price change
@@vibhuvikramaditya4576 But then if income effect is constant then it should be zero.. why subtract?
@@jezzy3472 the income effect is not constant, The total change in demand is equal to price plus income effect, but since substitution effect's sign is negative, as demand is negatively related to demand, negative of substituting plus positive sign of income effect, (since marshalian demand's are non decreasing in increasing income), now inorder to isolate the total change due to substitution effect we substract , It will be clear if you consider some examples online or from any book
pls dont chew gum while explaining sth bcos I couldnt focus to the video
I understand how you got 'X' by partially differentiating E. But is it just X, or its the Marshallian demand
X is the ordinary or Marshallian demand.
@@EconomicsinManyLessons sir, I have a doubt.... Derivative of expenditure with respect to price is equal to hiksian demand function. Than how X could be ordinary or Marshallian demand function? Please reply
@@riiajais1833right