Thank you for the video Fabian!! Just a quick question, if the FRA is advance settled (CF paid on day 180), would we discount the cashflow by the three month libor (1+0.013*(90/360))?
Hi Fabian, thanks for the video. Quick question, while discounting the $49,500 gain from day 270 to day 90. The method for present value that I remember is: power (1.0155, 180/360) * 49,500. However, here you jut use 49,500 / (1.0155 * 180/360) = 49,119, without using power function. Is this a simplified version of discounting present value? And should I use this simplified version during CFA exam? Hope I explain my question clearly. Thank you.
Hi Fabian, I'm a bit confused by the formula used for forward rates. The formula I've always used and that is standard is F = R2 + (R2-R1) x T1/(T2-T1) However, this gives a different result to the formula you use in the example. Can you explain the difference between the two and which is correct?
Hi Janwender, that formula is based on linear interpolation and is usually used for interpolating spot rates. Unlikely it will be used for interpolating forward rates (at least I've never seen anyone do that). And the formula should be R1 + (R2-R1)×(Tn-T1)/(T2-T1) where Tn = spot period. The formula I'm using assumes simple interest (some people assume also use compound interest) and a no-arbitrage condition.
I'm very confused about 'set in advance, settled in advance' for FRA. If 'settled in advance', should we consider the cashflow 'netting' would happen at day 180 (instead of day 270), hence the discounting back would only be (180-90=) 90 days?
The cashflow netting is on Day 270, but the settlement is on day 180 (when the FRA expires), so we are discounting from Day 270 to Day 180 (270 - 180 = 90 days)
You are such a boss Fabian!! I hope your channel blows up I will definitely be sharing! Wow you can get the principle across so well!
Thanks! Got a few more videos on derivatives you can check out in the Playlist
@@FabianMoa oh yeah boss have been crushing them like binging Netflix, and the fixed income ones too.. fantastic stuff mate! God bless brother!!
Very useful. Clear workings and explanations.
Glad it was helpful!
thank you so much!!! so glad i found your videos
Ty
Thank you for the video Fabian!! Just a quick question, if the FRA is advance settled (CF paid on day 180), would we discount the cashflow by the three month libor (1+0.013*(90/360))?
We don't discount in FRAS....we just multiply directly with the time
Nicely explainded
Thanks! Very useful for exam preparation~
All the best for your exams, Sally!
GENIUS!
amazing
very helpful! thank you
You're welcome 😁
In these topics, is better to understand the principles behind and apply accordingly than to memorize the formulas
Hi Fabian, thanks for the video. Quick question, while discounting the $49,500 gain from day 270 to day 90. The method for present value that I remember is: power (1.0155, 180/360) * 49,500. However, here you jut use 49,500 / (1.0155 * 180/360) = 49,119, without using power function. Is this a simplified version of discounting present value? And should I use this simplified version during CFA exam? Hope I explain my question clearly. Thank you.
I am also confused about the same thing.Did you get an answer from anywhere else regarding the reason for not using the power?
Hi Fabian, I'm a bit confused by the formula used for forward rates. The formula I've always used and that is standard is F = R2 + (R2-R1) x T1/(T2-T1) However, this gives a different result to the formula you use in the example. Can you explain the difference between the two and which is correct?
Hi Janwender, that formula is based on linear interpolation and is usually used for interpolating spot rates. Unlikely it will be used for interpolating forward rates (at least I've never seen anyone do that). And the formula should be R1 + (R2-R1)×(Tn-T1)/(T2-T1) where Tn = spot period. The formula I'm using assumes simple interest (some people assume also use compound interest) and a no-arbitrage condition.
I'm very confused about 'set in advance, settled in advance' for FRA. If 'settled in advance', should we consider the cashflow 'netting' would happen at day 180 (instead of day 270), hence the discounting back would only be (180-90=) 90 days?
The cashflow netting is on Day 270, but the settlement is on day 180 (when the FRA expires), so we are discounting from Day 270 to Day 180 (270 - 180 = 90 days)
@@FabianMoa Clear. Thx
I'm here because Mark meldrum didnt' even cover how to do this FRA problem in his review videos..... I think i wont be using him for Level 3