"Zero to the power of zero, denoted by 00, is a mathematical expression with no agreed-upon value. The most common possibilities are 1 or leaving the expression undefined, with justifications existing for each, depending on context." So yes,given the context of the math,here it can be 1.
I think this video is misleading since you must show that the series converge uniformly inside the radius of convergence (which is true for any power series) in order to differentiate the series term by term.
Why does Mr Khan say that 0^0 is equal to 1? It is undefined as far as I'm concerned, so the whole expression should be undefined || am I mistaken?
"Zero to the power of zero, denoted by 00, is a mathematical expression with no agreed-upon value. The most common possibilities are 1 or leaving the expression undefined, with justifications existing for each, depending on context."
So yes,given the context of the math,here it can be 1.
I think this video is misleading since you must show that the series converge uniformly inside the radius of convergence (which is true for any power series) in order to differentiate the series term by term.
Oh
so what if you define 0^0 = undefined? Then this whole problem falls apart
How come he never took the derivative of (-1)^n?
Erfan Huq hes differentiating with respect to x
That makes sense. THANK U SO MUCH
in this case, (-1)^n is just a coefficient so it’s not like a function or anything that needs the product differentiation rule
f prime prime prime
EZ
Bruh, ily