The MVP of Integrals

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  • Опубліковано 8 гру 2023
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    Today integrate (x^69-1)/ln(x) from 0 to 1 using the Leibniz Rule for integration aka. Feynman's Technique. Enjoy! =D
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КОМЕНТАРІ • 40

  • @jordanfreidel1751
    @jordanfreidel1751 6 місяців тому +10

    As a physics boi, I saw the thumbnail and was like “fuck yea we getting into the Feynman shit today”

  • @muhammadhabeebullah556
    @muhammadhabeebullah556 6 місяців тому +29

    I said wtf immediately I saw it 😂

  • @youssefayman78
    @youssefayman78 6 місяців тому +16

    You can get the same result by transforming it into a double integral of 1/xlnx over the region 0 < x < 1, x < y < x^70. You can the flip the order of integration to get the new boundaries 0 < y < 1, y^(1/70) < x < y. By integrating the first integral using a u-sub, the second integral will simplify to an integral from 0 to 1 of ln(70), which is equal to ln(70).

  • @aweebthatlovesmath4220
    @aweebthatlovesmath4220 6 місяців тому +37

    Same integral with power 68 would be better because you actually get 69 lol

  • @felipelopes3171
    @felipelopes3171 6 місяців тому +3

    What helps to see how to apply the Feynman trick is the ln x in the denominator. One of the cases where the Feynman trick simplifies the integrand is when it multiplies it by a factor that helps you integrate.
    So, in the case where what's annoying you is something in the denominator one idea is to use the Feynman trick to cancel it out.

  • @tomkerruish2982
    @tomkerruish2982 6 місяців тому +2

    So nice to see Papa using the trick that Papa Feynman taught to Papa Leibniz.

  • @achrafidou537
    @achrafidou537 6 місяців тому +9

    Lol the "don't be a d³/dt³(x->)"
    it means "don't be a jerk"

    • @mohamedjaballa6811
      @mohamedjaballa6811 6 місяців тому

      Why does it mean that? can you explain pls this is not the first time seeing this and I still got no clue

    • @achrafidou537
      @achrafidou537 6 місяців тому

      @@mohamedjaballa6811
      The derivatives of position vector are :
      1th:velocity
      2th : acceleration
      3th :named jerk
      And so on
      You can see it in matt parker's video

    • @achrafidou537
      @achrafidou537 6 місяців тому

      its called "an unexciting video about distance derivatives"

  • @tartaglia4655
    @tartaglia4655 6 місяців тому +9

    I love how he eventually don't write 70

  • @fabboterman
    @fabboterman 6 місяців тому +1

    You killed me with log(succ(69)). Legendary integral

  • @rhosymedra6628
    @rhosymedra6628 6 місяців тому +1

    Feynman trick is always fun!

  • @xinpingdonohoe3978
    @xinpingdonohoe3978 6 місяців тому +4

    The 69 was clearly an arbitrary number. Also, using e^u=x you it is non elementary. That makes it a clever Feynman, easy enough for me to do in my head. It's fun.

  • @CamiKite
    @CamiKite 6 місяців тому +2

    Nice!
    I found the same result with another (yet longer) method:
    1) Substitute u=log(x) => I=integral (exp(69*u)-1)*exp(u)/u from -inf to 0
    2) Expand (exp(69u)-1)/u with taylor serie and switch sum and integral
    3) By another substitution you get the gamma function of k on the numerator which is divided by k!, so you find the serie of log(1--69)
    OK it's more complicated, but it"s so satisfaying when everything simplify and you recognize a famous serie!

  • @neilgerace355
    @neilgerace355 6 місяців тому +2

    🎼It's beginning 🎶to look a lot like Christmas 🎵

  • @nwa8201
    @nwa8201 2 місяці тому

    We can use definite int property intf(x)dx from 0 to a intf(a-x)dx

  • @mortify7532
    @mortify7532 6 місяців тому +3

    I did it by noticing that the integrand is the integral from 0 to 69 of x^t with respect to t. After swapping the order of integration, it becomes trivial.

  • @danielc.martin1574
    @danielc.martin1574 6 місяців тому +4

    I love leibnitz

    • @pseudolullus
      @pseudolullus 6 місяців тому

      Me too, they make some nice biscuits/crackers!

  • @pseudolullus
    @pseudolullus 6 місяців тому

    Nice one papa

  • @kokainum
    @kokainum 6 місяців тому +1

    Yeah, you should also show that you can change order of derivative over t and integral over x. It's not always true you can do it. Either mention a theorem you're using or prove it.
    Here we can do it because for f(x,t)=x^t/ln(x) we have d/d^2 t (f(x,t)) = ln(x) *x^t and it is bounded on sex (0,1)x(t-epsilon(t),t+epsilon(t)) for each t and epsilon taken as small we want for each t>0. It's enough to prove that certain integral in proof is as close to zero as we want. For t=0 the direct proof doesn't work, but it's not needed. Continuity of I_t in 0 is enough.

  • @mani_main
    @mani_main 6 місяців тому +3

    Feynman op

  • @memecleave4299
    @memecleave4299 6 місяців тому

    Where did u get the chalkboard from? Im considering getting one :)

  • @decreasing_entropy3003
    @decreasing_entropy3003 6 місяців тому +2

    6:35 Aren't we supposed to integrate I'(t) instead of I(t)? That should give us I(t) at upper bound-I(t) at lower bound, shouldn't it?

    • @PapaFlammy69
      @PapaFlammy69  6 місяців тому +3

      Of course! My bad, small typo, thanks for pointing it out! =)

    • @decreasing_entropy3003
      @decreasing_entropy3003 6 місяців тому +2

      @@PapaFlammy69 Really trivial mistake, not a big deal at all. Keep going!

  • @monkerud2108
    @monkerud2108 6 місяців тому +1

    You no want beef jerky?

  • @lickit77
    @lickit77 6 місяців тому

    nice

  • @philippryb5794
    @philippryb5794 6 місяців тому +1

    lover bound ;))

  • @joshuaalexgeorge
    @joshuaalexgeorge 6 місяців тому +1

    -68

  • @FATHERSOFACTUARIALSCIENCE
    @FATHERSOFACTUARIALSCIENCE 6 місяців тому +2

    Integrate n times with respect to x, f(x)=x^x^x^x^x^x^x^x^...

  • @mr.inhuman7932
    @mr.inhuman7932 6 місяців тому +1

    Papa Flammy. It is cold. Why you dressed so lightly?

  • @twiddle7125
    @twiddle7125 6 місяців тому +1

    You expect us to follow along when you're distracting us with your guns??

  • @hcos8139
    @hcos8139 6 місяців тому +1

    Bruh 😂