pi-th derivative of x^pi

Поділитися
Вставка
  • Опубліковано 21 вер 2024
  • Here we will see how to find the pi-th derivative of x^pi. It's part of "fractional calculus". enjoy!
    half derivative (& more) by Dr. P: • Half Derivative of x
    Gamma function: • Introduction to the Ga...
    💪 Join our channel membership (for as low as $0.99 per month) to unlock several perks, including special badges and emojis during the livestreams: / @blackpenredpen
    🏬 Shop math t-shirt & hoodies: teespring.com/...
    10% off with the code "TEESPRINGWELCOME10"
    Advanced Calculus Explored, check it out here for more challenging problems amzn.to/2PpOJIX
    The book is by daily_math_, / daily_math_

КОМЕНТАРІ • 364

  • @juakoncio583
    @juakoncio583 4 роки тому +560

    Bro thats sounds like d^3/dx^3(x^3) with extra steps

  • @newwaveinfantry8362
    @newwaveinfantry8362 4 роки тому +333

    That's one of those things that just looks absolutely impossible, but someone's solving it for 9 minutes.

  • @chirayu_jain
    @chirayu_jain 4 роки тому +98

    I just found out that
    Gamma(pi + 1) = 7.1880827...

  • @JustHoldIt539
    @JustHoldIt539 4 роки тому +100

    Just the video-title on its own managed to make me feel really anxious. I am glad we physicists don't see things like that so often :D

    • @angelmendez-rivera351
      @angelmendez-rivera351 4 роки тому +15

      Hillarious FlyingGrandma You see this type of stuff very often in quantum physics. However, in other fields of physics, this would be irrelevant. You are safe as long as you do not study quantum.
      But also, it is not as scary as it looks. Once you get used to the definition, these types of derivatives become intuitive

  • @nathanisbored
    @nathanisbored 4 роки тому +277

    5:18 how can you just write ...3*2*1 at the end there? if the whole point is that 'a' is not necessarily an integer, then (a-n) is not necessarily an integer, so it may never hit 3*2*1.

    • @blackpenredpen
      @blackpenredpen  4 роки тому +137

      nathanisbored yes you are right!!!! I should have done it as multiplying the top and bottom by (a-n)! that would have been better.

    • @blackpenredpen
      @blackpenredpen  4 роки тому +113

      I will pin this for other ppl to see. Thanks Nathan.

    • @hachikiina
      @hachikiina 4 роки тому +11

      you rock nathan!

    • @jagatiello6900
      @jagatiello6900 4 роки тому +10

      Since the Gamma function (or the Pi function for that matter) are arguably 'the best' we have as an extension of the factorial, particularly those essential discontinuities at zero and negative integers makes me wonder if the meaning of the function for z

    • @masoncamera273
      @masoncamera273 4 роки тому

      Yooo nathanisbored I love your videos

  • @Peter_1986
    @Peter_1986 Рік тому +15

    This is one thing that is really cool about math;
    you can take something that is somewhat intuitive (derivatives are reasonably intuitive, since they are kind of like extreme cases of the point-slop formula), and then expand on that and show that it works for much more general situations.

  • @blackpenredpen
    @blackpenredpen  4 роки тому +226

    WHOA!

    • @chino7242
      @chino7242 4 роки тому +1

      This one vid really blew my mind.

    • @sharmashish9
      @sharmashish9 4 роки тому +2

      Big fan you sir 😍🙏🏼

    • @oincapaz
      @oincapaz 4 роки тому

      Who you resolve any question of calculation,i like your vídeos.

    • @einsteingonzalez4336
      @einsteingonzalez4336 4 роки тому

      #drpeyam WHOA! What is Spirit Science?
      It's a UA-cam channel that promotes New Age ideas, so in order to show that real science must be respected, you must search for the Spirit Science UA-cam Channel, and don't be afraid dislike every video on Spirit Science. Again, for real science, 𝗻𝗼𝘁 hate itself, because that can be a violation of the UA-cam policy concerning hate speech. : )

    • @mariomario-ih6mn
      @mariomario-ih6mn 4 роки тому +2

      Make that like button blue if you subbed to my channel

  • @blackpenredpen
    @blackpenredpen  4 роки тому +3

    I used this book: amzn.to/2PpOJIX

  • @GottfriedLeibnizYT
    @GottfriedLeibnizYT 4 роки тому +324

    How do you even interpret the pi-th derivative geometrically?

    • @angelmendez-rivera351
      @angelmendez-rivera351 4 роки тому +197

      Gottfried Leibniz You don't.
      Not everything has a geometric interpretation in mathematics.

    • @technoguyx
      @technoguyx 4 роки тому +102

      It can be thought of as an "interpolation" between the integer derivatives (and antiderivatives, if we consider the "-1th" derivative to be the indefinite integral). This is because Γ is a continuous function in most of its domain, so small variations in the order of derivation will result in small variations of the resulting functions. Here's an animation: en.wikipedia.org/wiki/File:Fractional_Derivative_of_Basic_Power_Function_(2014).gif

    • @thorbynumbers5368
      @thorbynumbers5368 4 роки тому +53

      Wasn't it your invention?

    • @malharsingh337
      @malharsingh337 4 роки тому +11

      @@thorbynumbers5368 no it was Newton's

    • @drpeyam
      @drpeyam 4 роки тому +26

      There’s a video on my channel about the geometric intuition behind it, I think it’s the Grunwald-Letnikov formula or something

  • @MacheTheFerret
    @MacheTheFerret 4 роки тому +12

    Got out of surgery a few hours ago, so I was very happy to see a new video from you in my recommended. Nice work :D

  • @whoami8434
    @whoami8434 4 роки тому +3

    Just finished out differential equations today. I just want to thank you for helping me through it. At the beginning of this semester I commented on one of your videos that it was a shame you didn’t have any videos for diffy q, but then you directed me to your playlists and boy did those videos (along with Patrick JMT) save me in that class.
    You two youtubers helped me through my entire math career.
    Thank you.

  • @Infinite_Precision
    @Infinite_Precision 4 роки тому +17

    You should be having a billion subscribers coz studying Mathematics with you is really really Fun, love these kinda videos, Fantastic work sir!

  • @broccoloodle
    @broccoloodle 4 роки тому +61

    What's the motivation behind the expanding of the definition of derivative into the real number order?

    • @arpitdas4263
      @arpitdas4263 4 роки тому +24

      Because why not?
      Jokes apart,it helps out a lot in analytic number theory and making sense of continuous products. By converting it into an integral for a generalized number, you open up a plethora of possibilities in analytic number theory, calculus, statistics and a lot more

    • @cpotisch
      @cpotisch 3 роки тому +7

      @@arpitdas4263 It also has uses in fluid dynamics.

    • @gavinriley5232
      @gavinriley5232 3 роки тому +8

      There is also use in quantum gravity where space time experiences spectral dimensional reduction (has to do with brownian motion). In these cases you can have a 2.5, a pi, or anything else between 1.8 and 4.2 dimensions(depends on which theory you're looking at).

    • @broccoloodle
      @broccoloodle 3 роки тому +1

      @@arpitdas4263 It's a history question rather than a YES and NO question. You don't say the emergence of the wave function is "why not", it has its own history, motivation for many years of classical quantum theory.

  • @omerresnikoff3565
    @omerresnikoff3565 4 роки тому +40

    "at the end we'll get a really nice answer"
    later at the end: "~2.188"
    I truly was hoping that you'll show an exact answer like e^(pi/4) or something

  • @matthewpoynter7906
    @matthewpoynter7906 3 роки тому +9

    According to the fundamental theorem of engineering, I got 6.

  • @evelynmisaki2428
    @evelynmisaki2428 4 роки тому +1

    I really appreciate your channel, it's entertaining, educational, impressive, and unlike some people, you don't belittle minorities in the process! Thank you for making this videos, I appreciate you

  • @benjaminbrady2385
    @benjaminbrady2385 4 роки тому +6

    The gamma function is used probably because of a notational mistake but more usefully, because the gamma function appears as the output of transforms that use the Haar measure (which is very nice)
    Most notably the Mellin transform on the exponential decay function (e^-x)

    • @azzteke
      @azzteke Рік тому

      No notational mistake!

  • @JavSusLar
    @JavSusLar 4 роки тому +6

    What about the i-th derivative of a function? (Yes, i^2=-1)
    Does it make any sense at all?

  • @adandap
    @adandap 4 роки тому +1

    This is a nice heuristic argument, but would be better by introducing the fractional operator as an integral transform and going from there to get Gamma(pi + 1).

  • @thalfie
    @thalfie 4 роки тому

    I am a high school student taking Accel. Algebra 2 (That is covering half of geometry and all of Algebra 2) in my 10th grade year. Even know I BARELY know anything about differential calculus/calculus at all, I oddly enough understand what is going on in the video.
    And this is why I love stuff like this; stuff like gamma functions, pi functions and everything in between. I love to work out math equations on my spare time; finding factors of really big numbers like 99,999,999 (hint, there are three prime numbers that multiply to make a palindrome), gaps between primes, and so on.
    Math is really, REALLY beautiful if you have time for it.

  • @drpeyam
    @drpeyam 4 роки тому +5

    OMG, thanks for the shout-out!!! ❤️

  • @createyourownfuture3840
    @createyourownfuture3840 2 роки тому +1

    2:26 Ah yes, my favorite kind of numbers. Negative whole numbers!
    Also,
    Ah yes, the floor is made out of floor!

  • @FunctionallyLiteratePerson
    @FunctionallyLiteratePerson Рік тому

    oh, that's a familoar form! Before shifting to the gamma function, that's just P(a,n) * x^(a-n). Neat!

  • @lordstevenson9619
    @lordstevenson9619 3 роки тому

    For Γ(-1):
    Using (integral = ζ)
    Γ(t) = ζ[0,infinity] [ (e^-t)/t ] dt
    => Γ(-1) = -ζ -(e^-t/t)dt
    => Γ(-1) = -E1(t) |(0,infinity)
    => Γ(-1) = -E1(infinity) +E1(0)
    => Γ(-1) = -0+ infinity
    Taking limit from x=1_ becomes + Infinity
    Taking limit from x=1+ becomes - infinity
    .•. Γ(-1) is divergent, there’s asymptotes for each negative integer.

  • @elonmusk501
    @elonmusk501 4 роки тому +3

    Your writing style is very good

  • @einsteingonzalez4336
    @einsteingonzalez4336 4 роки тому +14

    Guys, we did it! blackpenredpen reached 400K subscribers! Let's celebrate with #YAY !
    The Kremlin clock chimes 12 times at the beginning of 2020...

    • @blackpenredpen
      @blackpenredpen  4 роки тому +1

      Yes!!! Thank you!!!! I am running a giftaway for Christmas. See my community post and let me know what you think.

  • @eric3813
    @eric3813 4 роки тому +4

    Lol, i bought bis Book today And was surprised of this exercise and wrapped my Head Around this exercise, but now you explanined it😄
    P.s:omg my hypothethis was Gamma of pi.😂

    • @eric3813
      @eric3813 4 роки тому +1

      Ups, it' s gamma(pi+1)😂

  • @markgraham2312
    @markgraham2312 4 роки тому +1

    In 1981 I asked my college algebra teacher if there was a 3/4 or 1/2 derivative, similar to x^3/4 or x^1/2 and he said: No! It doesn't make any sense.
    When was this concept originated?

  • @hotshot7767
    @hotshot7767 4 роки тому +12

    I think u r the only teacher who makes me so curious about maths

  • @menaa5978
    @menaa5978 4 роки тому +5

    This looks amazing ..
    But I have a problem :
    Can we inverse a lot of functions in one function ?

  • @skyrider53
    @skyrider53 4 роки тому +1

    I discovered that use of derivatives that gives you pattern of factorial almost 2 years ago and never got to post it anywhere in the internet.

  • @unoriginalusernameno999
    @unoriginalusernameno999 4 роки тому +1

    The (d^n/dx)(x^n) is simply n factorial. So the (pi)th derivative of x^pi is pi factorial right? And pi factorial is 7.188 (searched it on google)
    The answer is 7.18808272898...right?

  • @ohadish
    @ohadish 8 місяців тому

    2! is 2*1, 1! is 1, we divided by 2. thats why 0! is 1, we divide by1, which means (-1)! is 1/0 since we divide by 0.

  • @debrainwasher
    @debrainwasher 3 роки тому +1

    When he takes the blue pen, either math turns into a crime, or it becomes really, really dangerous.

  • @barthennin6088
    @barthennin6088 2 дні тому

    Some great theoretical math!... Any practical science or engineering applications?

  • @vishalmishra3046
    @vishalmishra3046 3 роки тому

    For any integer - d^n/dx^n [ f(x) = x^n ] = n(n-1)(n-2)... n times = n! = gamma(n+1) to allow non-integers. So, the answer is gamma(π+1) = *7.188082728976031*

  • @YellowBunny
    @YellowBunny 4 роки тому +4

    So in order to differentiate we just need to calculate some integrals? That sounds really useful xD

  • @yashj1072
    @yashj1072 4 роки тому +7

    Hey, can you do a "100 limit problems in one go" type video? I really need that. Your problems sets are good and not super easy ones like in most youtube videos.

  • @VibingMath
    @VibingMath 4 роки тому +3

    Originally I am going to buy this book coz I also follow daily math IG. After reading your book review and also this video, I know my decision is defintely correct! There is a lot of fun in this book!

  • @googleuser4063
    @googleuser4063 4 роки тому +1

    I want to subscribe you million times .

  • @reeosva
    @reeosva 4 роки тому +11

    You are so fun and kind!

  • @angelmendez-rivera351
    @angelmendez-rivera351 4 роки тому +7

    The Gamma function is more popular because mathematicians have the extremely bad habit of what seems to be intentionally defining non-normalized shifted versions of the actual function we would realistically work with. For example, it happens with the definition of sinc(z), so much that non-mathematicians just use a different definition altogether. The same goes with the Fresnel integrals. It goes for a ton of different functions.

  • @LS-Moto
    @LS-Moto 4 роки тому +9

    WOAH ... you are almost at 400k

    • @blackpenredpen
      @blackpenredpen  4 роки тому +5

      Yea! I am very happy about it! Especially I set that goal in the beginning of this year!!

    • @jagatiello6900
      @jagatiello6900 4 роки тому +2

      Congrats for the 400000! (

    • @blackpenredpen
      @blackpenredpen  4 роки тому +1

      jagatiello thank you!!!!!!

  • @jbooks888
    @jbooks888 4 роки тому

    I like all the derivatives of pi - raspberry, chocolate, beef, chicken... the list goes on.

  • @boonyinlee9057
    @boonyinlee9057 4 роки тому

    If a and n are both integer and a < n the answer should be 0 right?

  • @GhostyOcean
    @GhostyOcean 4 роки тому +7

    Seeing 3B1B as one of your patrons made me smile

  • @LilyKazami
    @LilyKazami 4 роки тому +1

    OK, for general case, you have this d^n/dx^n (x^a), this makes sense.
    But - suppose that a is an positive integer, and n is a non-integer greater than a+1. Meaning that using standard derivations, you will eventually reach zero, leaving only a fractional derivative of zero, which is also zero.
    However, when looking at the factorial representations, you run into something a bit more interesting. a! is a finite positive number, (a-n)! is also a finite number, as it's a non-integer negative factorial, and a-n is a finite negative number. Let's call a!/(a-n)! k for the time being, and (a-n) can be b. kx^b is a standard function, and due to b being negative, kx^b can never be zero!
    Since these two interpretations directly contradict, one of them must be false. Or possibly both. Which, if any, is considered the correct way to resolve this bit of calculus?

    • @fghsgh
      @fghsgh 4 роки тому +1

      How do you know that a fractional derivative of zero is always zero?
      Interestingly, when working with integer derivatives, you don't run into this issue, because that would give a!/(a-n)!, where a-n is a negative integer. This is, using the Gamma function, infinity. Dividing by infinity is zero, so there's your zero. But with this interpretation, I am lead to believe that a fractional derivative of zero doesn't necessarily have to be zero. This makes me think of the +c of negative derivatives (integrals), however in case of f(x)=0, c is always 0. Huh.
      EDIT: now that I think of it, when n is negative (resulting in an integral), there should be some c's in there. Or maybe this only gives the principal antiderivative? But that then assumes c=0, so that's another problem in the reasoning above.

    • @LilyKazami
      @LilyKazami 4 роки тому

      @@fghsgh This is only on the assumption of successive derivations being equivalent to taking the fractional derivative as a whole, which may be wrong.
      But when we're getting to the point where we've done a derivatives, this is, with respect to x, a!*x^0. The next derivative on the stack, then, multiplies in the zero, rendering the whole equation to zero.
      Further normal derivatives can't get rid of the zero, of course.
      But since the fractional derivative is also giving finite numbers, that also can't get rid of zero.
      Though if you throw in a negative integer into the pi function, you get the necessary infinity, but once you hit the point of f(x)=0 that could be any arbitrary power. Singularities are silly like that.

  • @glitchy9613
    @glitchy9613 Рік тому

    so the answer is just Π(π), incredible!

  • @AyanKhan-if3mm
    @AyanKhan-if3mm 4 роки тому

    My friend challenged me to find the πth derivative of x^π, at first I argued that it doesn't exist then I worked a little and found π!, but I thought that I was of course wrong but seeing this video makes me confident.

  • @jaxonrholden
    @jaxonrholden 4 роки тому

    Ha! I got it right! I treated it like a Taylor Polynomial. I remembered k(k-1)(k-2)... from Binomial series can be represented as k!/(k-n)! and thus represented the nth derivative of f(x)=x^pi as the following: [pi!/(x-pi)!]*x^(pi-n), then just inserted pi for n to get the pi-th derivative

  • @JuanMataCFC
    @JuanMataCFC 4 роки тому

    i haven't fully grasped the idea of fractional/irrational derivatives ... so if (n-a) is a positive integer, would the answer just be 0? since at some point we will keep differentiating 0 over & over again?

  • @masoncamera273
    @masoncamera273 4 роки тому +1

    Do you think you could make a video about hyperoperations? Specifically, I'm interested in a super-exponential function. For example, e^^x. The complicated thing is, there is really no known way to take a value to a non positive integer superpower (or at least that I know of), since the best definition we have for tetration is iterated exponentiation.

    • @masoncamera273
      @masoncamera273 4 роки тому

      Another interesting thing that I'm not sure has been explored might be non integer operations? Or maybe that's just too much abstract bullshit at that point lol

  • @lifeispoop8537
    @lifeispoop8537 4 роки тому

    A function equal to a number ? You might want to put (1) after each derivative to apply the function and get !n (Because the function x->d/dx^n(x^n) applied on 1 is n!)

  • @Senpapaya
    @Senpapaya 4 роки тому

    I saw the thumbnail and I went and tried it on my own. I got the answer but I used the laplace transform!
    Could be a fun a follow up video.

  • @Skandalos
    @Skandalos 3 роки тому

    But whats the geometric interpretation of this derivative? First derivative is the slope of the curve, 2nd the slope of the slope. But whats a fractional or irrational derivative?

  • @ramking7869
    @ramking7869 Рік тому

    since the n-th derivative of (x^n) is = n!, without even watching the video the identity states the answer is pi! (or Gamma(pi-1) )

  • @srinivasshastry7497
    @srinivasshastry7497 2 роки тому

    Hi, Can you give a concise proof of higher order derivative test for Max/min

  • @NishanthVikraman
    @NishanthVikraman 4 роки тому +1

    Great work, now what about a πth order differential equation?

  • @anthonygreven2811
    @anthonygreven2811 4 роки тому

    Hi! At 5:52 how do you make sure a

  • @ekueh
    @ekueh 4 роки тому +1

    An intro like this should be included in calc 1 getting students to know derivatives is not just integer but it can take fractional derivative and can be think of as a function operated on an equation

  • @paulfaigl8329
    @paulfaigl8329 4 роки тому

    Always cool and great extension of my HS maths.

  • @lemniskate_ayd
    @lemniskate_ayd 4 роки тому

    That is exactly why math is beautiful!

  • @donaldbiden7927
    @donaldbiden7927 4 роки тому +1

    The book you showed in the video should be used for which level (calc 1 ,2,3 or adv )
    Plz tell !

    • @blackpenredpen
      @blackpenredpen  4 роки тому

      Bhupinder Kaurhut a strong understanding in calc 2 will help.

  • @aaryansrivastava9538
    @aaryansrivastava9538 4 роки тому

    Sir you relate your videos pretty well!

  • @yogitshankar6348
    @yogitshankar6348 4 роки тому +3

    gamma(pi+1)

  • @janto8036
    @janto8036 4 роки тому

    Is the way you extend the n-th derivative of x^m from natural to real numbers unique? One could think even of analytically continuation to complex numbers by considering this as a function of n and m. But therefore you need either, that n and m are accumulation points in some area of the complex plane (thats not the case for natural numbers), or that every derivative matches in one point. Is the latter true for this situation?

  • @ny6u
    @ny6u 4 роки тому

    what is the actual physical relevance of something like pi factorial ?

  • @chetnabudhraja3253
    @chetnabudhraja3253 4 роки тому +1

    what is sum of 1/r! upto infinity

  • @theartiszt980
    @theartiszt980 4 роки тому

    8:39 love it!

  • @shivansh668
    @shivansh668 4 роки тому

    What an idea! Sir

  • @alanioth5388
    @alanioth5388 4 роки тому

    I didn't get that last integral at the end, t^pi*e^-t dt which you set to approx 7.188. Evidently I missed some past video (can't find it). In this one, I couldn't make out what you said during the fast-motion sequence for this integration. How was it done?

  • @manuelodabashian
    @manuelodabashian 4 роки тому

    Can you do a video on laurent series?

  • @TheMaster-tq7cl
    @TheMaster-tq7cl 4 роки тому +2

    Wouldn’t this definition of the nth derivative for the power rule have issues for n

    • @angelmendez-rivera351
      @angelmendez-rivera351 4 роки тому +1

      The Master Not if you define it via falling factorials. The falling factorial with negative exponent is well-defined, and is equal to a rising factorial.

  • @fivestar5855
    @fivestar5855 3 роки тому

    Fascinating!

  • @dsantistevan99
    @dsantistevan99 4 роки тому

    I was hoping for you to explore derivatives of fractional order, don't know why. Maybe some other time, keep up the quality vids please, take care.

  • @biagiomorgillo5565
    @biagiomorgillo5565 2 роки тому

    I've just started the video at 3:14 AM, I mean... What a coincidence

  • @Sujay.Vaidya
    @Sujay.Vaidya 4 роки тому

    Can we use.... x^π = e^(π. ln x)... Relation?

  • @mathsfermattest6494
    @mathsfermattest6494 4 роки тому

    5:27 what if n is greater than a

  • @purim_sakamoto
    @purim_sakamoto 3 роки тому

    うっわ・・・ めっちゃくちゃ簡単にガンマ関数まで繋げてくれた
    見るの1分かからなかったよ
    老師は教える天才やな
    UCBもええとこなんやろな わしローソンの夜勤バイトしか知らんねん

  • @FTR0225
    @FTR0225 4 роки тому

    I got a problem for you: limit as x->1 of the infinite sum of nth derivative of f(x) going from n=1 to infinity for f(x)=sqrt(x)

  • @dr.rahulgupta7573
    @dr.rahulgupta7573 2 роки тому

    Excellent !! vow !!

  • @aee220phmunirabad
    @aee220phmunirabad 4 роки тому

    Derivative function derived from integration.
    Amazing pi th derivative of x^π

  • @MathIguess
    @MathIguess 4 роки тому

    I think the gamma function is more popular and stuff because of the gamma distribution in statistics. Having the gamma function inside the gamma distribution's probability density function's definition makes it nice and cute, but having pi inside gamma sounds weird :P

  • @ruhanikhazain7564
    @ruhanikhazain7564 10 місяців тому

    Thanks!

  • @gregorylewis4426
    @gregorylewis4426 4 роки тому +1

    Nice, but you totally blew the opportunity to say that the π'th derivative of x^π = Π(π)

  • @peter-hm9iu
    @peter-hm9iu 4 роки тому

    Facotorial is defined for rational only.

  • @user-hk3ej4hk7m
    @user-hk3ej4hk7m 3 роки тому

    You can actually arrive to the same conclusion using the spectral derivative, using the Laplace transform.

  • @J.P.Nery.N.
    @J.P.Nery.N. 4 роки тому +4

    Put n=-1 and you get the integral :)
    Edit: that's why the integral is the inverse operation of the derivative

    • @fghsgh
      @fghsgh 4 роки тому +1

      ...for polynomials (he hasn't done anything with other functions)

    • @J.P.Nery.N.
      @J.P.Nery.N. 4 роки тому

      @@fghsgh yes I was talking about the pattern for polynomials because for other functions is not so obvious the pattern for pluging n=-1

  • @anilkumar-fh8xk
    @anilkumar-fh8xk 4 роки тому

    What is geometrical interpretation of radical order derivatives

  • @benjaminojeda8094
    @benjaminojeda8094 3 роки тому

    Me: its imposible, he: solving it for 9 minutes

  • @francescomengoli4903
    @francescomengoli4903 4 роки тому

    Shouldnt it be a-n+1 in 4:25 ?

  • @shiwenhuang6997
    @shiwenhuang6997 3 роки тому

    If d^n/dx^n means d/dx(d/dx(d/dx...))

  • @DatBoi_TheGudBIAS
    @DatBoi_TheGudBIAS 3 роки тому

    d^e/dx^e(x^e)
    Edit: comment posted 0 second ago, interesting

  • @BenRuEv85
    @BenRuEv85 4 роки тому

    how do you intepret fractional derivatives and do they have any applications?

    • @angelmendez-rivera351
      @angelmendez-rivera351 4 роки тому +1

      Ben Evans Fractional derivatives are much like fractional powers. For instance, D^(1/2)·D^(1/2)[f(x)] = f'(x). In words, the half derivative of the half derivative is the first derivative. It also allows you to talk about definite integrals as derivatives to a negative power.
      The applications I am familiar with come from quantum physics. It can be particularly useful in solving differential equations.

  • @davidspencer3726
    @davidspencer3726 3 роки тому

    When you add a-n to the denominator, doesn't that mean you have to add a rule a=/=n, to avoid div.by.0?

    • @raunak1147
      @raunak1147 3 роки тому

      you simply wont add that then. Because if a-n =0,
      a-(n-1) = 1.
      You've already got a! (constant)
      if you derivative it one more time, itll become 0.
      which is why a*(a-1)*(a-2)..(a-n) is the n+1th derivative of x^n = 0

  • @DancingRain
    @DancingRain 4 роки тому +1

    Calculus + ragtime =

  • @ahmedosman9699
    @ahmedosman9699 4 роки тому

    I don't usually argue in this channel however i think this concept of relating the gamma function to derivation is wrong because the gamma function doesn't define the factorial,, however vice-versa is true the factorial can define the gamma function for descret values ONLY. I think this does not make any sense

  • @harrymaster001
    @harrymaster001 4 роки тому

    finally fractional calculus!!

  • @johnadrias9935
    @johnadrias9935 4 роки тому +2

    Hi sir can i message you a problem?

  • @DaanSnqn
    @DaanSnqn 4 роки тому

    Can you also get the pi'th antiderivative?