Відео

can you please explain how did you find the coefficients?

Great Sir!

1:17 in my test, this one was considered a correct answer... I cannot believe how it is such a widespread misconception. Thanks for stating that it's wrong and not equivalent to the correct interpretation (F).

Thanks a lot for that excellent explanation!

I get confused on how to determine which set of intervals provide stronger evidence. How would I do so given the list below? I know I look for the options that do not contain 1 because they are statistacally significant but once I narrow down to the last 2 what are the indicators? A. Industrial radiographers: 1.15 (0.53-2.19) B. Nuclear power plant: 5.55 (4.88-6.29) C. Dose-response: 1.10 (0.96-1.27) D. Shipyards: 9.97 (8.50 - 11.63)

I've been on hydrocodone for years and I might be prescribed Ozempic do they not go together ?

thank you

I remember watching your initial video about confounding and observational studies almost two years ago, and because of an upcoming interview I wanted to watch it again. That's how I came across this shorter and more focused video. Very helpful and I'm glad you continue making such useful content.

Thank you, good talk, clarifying things many do not

Superb

Very clear and example-based explanation! Great job! Thank you!

Thank you so much sir.This has been very helpful.

I feel like this is too simplified

if probability score matching improves the validity of overall impact of cofounders, why aren't they used mor often in entertainment, movies, ect? Sounds like an entertaining way to infer or narrow in on a hunch, so im confused why this isn't as generally mentioned? I had to go down so many A.I. rabbit holes to even ask the question - What are propensity scores.

Wonderfull, thank you so much!

This is the reason why the side effects for Statin were under reported.

Tirzepatide from Eli Lilly

THANK YOU

Omg!! This was perfect thanks!

thank you so much for this video helped me with my journal club!

Michael, the man that you’re!! Thank you from the bottom of my heart.

Very informative

Thank you for this lecture it is really helpful

I am a masters student studying social work and even when the focus of the research is different the process of calculating these scores is more or less similar. This video was a great deal of help and extremely digestible, thank you so much!

thank you for this great explanation! Is there also a possibility when having 3 treatment groups to calculate propensity scores with the same strategy?

DB RCT are the best! Thank you for the content! Why should i listen to other trials if they are vulnerable to biases?

Fantastic! Nicest explanation of PSM ever

Thank you so much for making this video!

Great video - well explained

Great video - you made it so easy to understand

Great vid! Would love to see a crash course on Kaplan-Meier/survival analysis

Can you talk about confidence intervals in depth? I’m having a hard time trying to interpret it

thanks, pretty clear

Great, thanks!

Really helpful, I wanted to ask What is the difference between Propensity score matching and Case control matching (SPSS)?

Thanks for the clear explanation!

THANK YOU SO MUCH

genius! deeply appreciate this video! helpful for med students drowned by statistical terms

Hi Michael, Appreciate this breakdown, despite most of it going over my head. When you say these statistical methods do not mimic RCTs, what exactly does that mean? How closely do we get to the results of a RCT using this method, and has this method been verified against the findings of RCTs? The reason I'm asking this is b/c I came across a cohort article comparing adolescents who took antipsychotic medication vs. those who didn't, and compared how they were doing 5 years later. The article suggests, after using IPTW, that antipsychotic medication in those w/ their first episode of psychosis, actually makes for a worse 5 year outcome. I'm skeptical though b/c it's a cohort study and no randomization was done. The authors acknowledge this weakness, and then state that the Stabilized IPTW is used to eliminate the possibility that those with worse psychosis were the ones who were given an antipsychotic medication. (I think this is the most probable explanation for why those who were given AP medication fared worse. . .simply b/c they already were experiencing more profound psychosis and so we would expect them to be doing worse at a 5 year follow-up). Seems super fishy to me. . .any thoughts here are appreciated, thx.

great video!

🤩

Very good lesson except that you are extremely fast. I wish you could slow down your pace

Thank you so much. Plz make more videos especially about meta-analysis

excellent breakdown and synopsis. Thank you.

There are 3 scores as 0.6, would it be fair/unbiased to match with random 2 only?

I learnt so much. Such a good presenter. Thank you!

This lecture coul even solve a particular question... kept rigmaroles coming...

you are so stupid, while giving a lecture, avoid your shit chatting with people

Thanks for the video

Thank you for the video!! saved me when I got totally lost in my intermediate pharmacoepidemiology class 😂