Why is the lateral area of a cone is pi*r*sqrt(r^2+h^2)?

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  • Опубліковано 10 чер 2024
  • Geometry proof! Learn why the lateral area of a cone is pi*r*sqrt(r^2+h^2). This is a must-know topic for your geometry class!
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КОМЕНТАРІ • 49

  • @TheBrad574
    @TheBrad574 10 днів тому +9

    First impressions.
    Lateral area of a cone is a combination of area of a triangle 1/2*b*h, perimeter of a circle for base 2*π*r, and height using hypotenuse of a right angle triangle c=√(a²+b²).
    Edit: it is good to see how sectors are used to find the correct proof.

  • @tekuraze
    @tekuraze 10 днів тому +32

    2:40 bro forgot to edit and cut the footage

    • @MeadTree
      @MeadTree 10 днів тому +8

      dont care hes epic

    • @bprpmathbasics
      @bprpmathbasics  10 днів тому +13

      lol I just noticed that haha

    • @l9day
      @l9day 10 днів тому +2

      I think it's become his schtick at this point

    • @jamescollier3
      @jamescollier3 10 днів тому +1

      he's down that before. it's fun😅

  • @aneeshbro
    @aneeshbro 10 днів тому +11

    The amount of dedication sir does to explain us is crrazy. Love from India

  • @Mini_Wolf.
    @Mini_Wolf. 9 днів тому +2

    I just did it by surface area of a revolution solid, was really good practice

  • @iamcodephilic
    @iamcodephilic 10 днів тому +7

    You always keep us engaged in the amazing world of mathematics. Thanks for your contribution

  • @Samir-zb3xk
    @Samir-zb3xk 10 днів тому +1

    Nice video.
    I only knew the calculus based way to prove this and never bothered to learn a purely geometric way to do it so this is pretty cool

  • @bfmdsm2020
    @bfmdsm2020 10 днів тому +6

    Wouldn't it be easier to integrate, adding up circumferences of gradually decreasing values? The radiuses can be evaluated using the function (r/h)(h-x), and then we can integrate this function evaluated at x from 0 to h. The result should be the product of this integral and 2π, giving πrh as the final result.
    I'm not sure i did the calculations correctly though, since that would imply l=h

    • @bprpmathbasics
      @bprpmathbasics  10 днів тому +3

      You are right. That will be “calculus basics”. This channel is bprp “math basics” so we just do basic geometry for this.

    • @bprpmathbasics
      @bprpmathbasics  10 днів тому +2

      Btw L and h are different. So be careful.

    • @piotrkosewski8940
      @piotrkosewski8940 10 днів тому

      And in doing so you'll end up with a Jacobian that will give you the coefficients that are here calculated using arc proportions etc. The rest will be (more or less) an integral for area of circle.
      Essentially, every time you say "area of circle is π * r^2", you are implicitly integrating in polar coordinates. You've just memorized the result.

  • @Gremriel
    @Gremriel 10 днів тому +13

    What's going on @2:45 lol

  • @vladislavanikin3398
    @vladislavanikin3398 2 дні тому

    There's also a fun way of "proving" it with calculus looking at the cone as a limit of regular pyramids. For a regular pyramid it's easy to prove that its lateral area is pl, where p is semiperimeter and l is hight of the faces.
    This only works if you believe that this sequence of regular pyramids really "converge" (in some sense) continuesly to a cone (which it does, but it's a whole another pain to prove that it does). Makes great intuition for the formula though.

  • @joshuagraham9332
    @joshuagraham9332 9 днів тому

    You should have a look at the final question for the math paper 3 edexcel gcse (the one with the 2 hexagons and circle) i think it would be interesting to see!

  • @Mr_Mundee
    @Mr_Mundee 9 днів тому

    plz do video on fourier trasnform

  • @AFSMG
    @AFSMG 6 днів тому

    Excelente

  • @micvanreijen
    @micvanreijen 10 днів тому

    I tried it myself first and found the same answer by dividing the pie arc length 2*pi*r by the total circle 2*pi*sqrt(r^2+h^2) and multiplying that with the area of circle pi*r^2*h^2. All that simplifies into the same formula :)

  • @EduMaseruAku
    @EduMaseruAku 6 днів тому

    When I saw the formula I understood, it's actually quite simple

  • @benchapple1583
    @benchapple1583 10 днів тому +2

    You have an underlying assumption that was not addressed. "The lateral area laid flat is a sector of a circle." That needs to be justified. I'm not challenging it, I can prove it to myself. I know that this is nitpicking but if there were ever a subject where nitpicking is the watchword then that subject would be maths.

    • @ronaldking1054
      @ronaldking1054 9 днів тому +1

      No, he proved it for this particular solid. How did he do it? He painted over the surface and moved it. The problem with the proof is that only works as a visual proof for this example until he uses calculus over an arc length of a straight line multiplied by the circumference of a circle integrated from 0 to h. That will show it is always true.

  • @SanjayBhowmick-uj8tc
    @SanjayBhowmick-uj8tc 10 днів тому +12

    Sir why negative times negative gives positive?

    • @ramnaftaliavni6532
      @ramnaftaliavni6532 10 днів тому +12

      Hello, if you would go straight, (we'll call it the positive direction) 2 times, a single step, you would go forward: "1 step times 2", which are 2 positive steps.
      If you suddenly, have the amazing urge to walk backwards, then you would walk a step, in the backwards direction, or a "minus step". You would do so 2 times and therefore: -1 * 2 = -2
      Now, lets say somebody recorded you the whole time- and they now play the video in reverse! So when you walked forward- in the video, now you are seen walking backwards, and when you walked backwards... Now it will look like you walk forward!
      So! When you walk backwards (first negative), and when you are filmed, and the video in reverse (second negative), you are actually doing the same thing as if you just walked forward, as if you just went to the positive direction
      Hope that explained it :)) It is me recalling Dr. Aviv Tsenzor's video.

    • @speadskater
      @speadskater 10 днів тому

      There are many videos on UA-cam answering this.

    • @gyaneshpathak6709
      @gyaneshpathak6709 10 днів тому

      You can refer video of channel "bhannat maths"

    • @bergenxej6287
      @bergenxej6287 10 днів тому +10

      "Turn around, turn around again. Wtf? I'm facing the same direction"
      Wise word from wise man

    • @thermitty_qxr5276
      @thermitty_qxr5276 10 днів тому +1

      Turn around, Turn around again!
      I'm facing the same direction!

  • @PawelS_77
    @PawelS_77 9 днів тому +1

    I think this video is missing some editing.

  • @camrouxbg
    @camrouxbg 9 днів тому +1

    Do Americans not use the term "surface area"? Lateral area feels more clunky to me, but I can see places where it would be useful.

    • @keescanalfp5143
      @keescanalfp5143 9 днів тому +2

      the ground circle area is not included , or is it by that term .

    • @Ninja20704
      @Ninja20704 9 днів тому +3

      It is because “surface area” refers to the entire cone, including the bottom circle. Here we are only interested in finding the area of the curved portion of the cone.

    • @camrouxbg
      @camrouxbg 3 дні тому

      @@Ninja20704 Awesome, thanks so much. I've never seen that term before. This makes sense to me.

  • @alimohsen4017
    @alimohsen4017 7 днів тому

    let f(x) be a third degree polynomial with a leading coefficient 1. there is no integer k s.t. f(k-1)f(k+1)

  • @joeanderson2024
    @joeanderson2024 10 днів тому

    The answer is just (p)irl

  • @user-wj1qb3qu1y
    @user-wj1qb3qu1y 5 годин тому

    Area of sector is similar to area of triangle or maybe special case of it
    Who agree with me?

  • @DEYGAMEDU
    @DEYGAMEDU 8 днів тому

    calculus

  • @mgancarzjr
    @mgancarzjr 10 днів тому

    If h -> 0, the formula becomes pi * r * sqrt(r^2) or pi * r^2. At least one degenerate cone confirmed for circle.

  • @devcoolkol
    @devcoolkol 10 днів тому

    All that integration and hard as f problems in the past, and you just end up here 😂

  • @dylanboji2817
    @dylanboji2817 9 днів тому

    hey round -0.5 to the nearest integer

    • @Dicaso9
      @Dicaso9 4 дні тому

      under common round, -0,5 rounded is 1, cause if the fractional part is exactly .5 you round up by standard. The problem is that if the number has a .5 fractional part, theres two nearest integers, the upper and the lower, so you just choose one depending on what you need

  • @Anandbhaai
    @Anandbhaai 9 днів тому

    Bprp I love u

  • @Anandbhaai
    @Anandbhaai 9 днів тому

    I hv just fuc**d my life since 6 months