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bro agreed there was retraction of nipple and peau d'orange in the image but they had asked the reason behind skin change and not nipple change in question so the answer would be subdermal lymphatic blockage😅
What they asked was ‘definitive management of this hemodynamically stable patient ‘ . The option should have been ex lap but they said emergency lap. don’t know if they wanted to trick us or what
Doppler to option nhn th sirf USG neck tha, aur ye infected aneurysm hain pulsatile swelling local erythema tender, and fever for 4 days , it's given online read about infected aneurysm it's the same here which was asked ct angio is the answer
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Sir in 1st question image showed both peau d orange and nipple retraction. Question asked what's the reason for the sign seen near nipple and surrounding region. Could it be infiltration of ducts since they have specifically mentioned nipple region.
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@@purbahnabiswas1054 there is something called as pilonidal cyst. It presents with swelling in and around anal opening. It later becomes discharging sinus
The indications for surgical intervention include (1) patient with hemodynamic instability, (2) development of peritoneal findings such as involuntary guarding, point tenderness or rebound tenderness, and (3) diffuse abdominal pain that does not resolve
@@Ac-fx2iz nope you’re wrong 55:55 check that flow chart…anterior stab wound with bowel evisceration means you’ve to do laparotomy and the image in the exam had stab wound on rt. anterior abd. of pt with bowel loops outside..so answer is explorative laparotomy
@@HareeshSoundar had u read the history?? Yes obviously we have to laparotomy but the vitals given in the question clearly lead to the point that patient was stable... For stable patient cect is the ioc fb laparotomy... But option was immediate laparotomy.... There were so many questions like this in this paper ..... History is utmost important... PPL are only going by images or the catchy word.... But history nd the language of the question wl b one of the deciding factor... Nd nbe doesn't publish answer key.... So very very tough to predict 😥
@@ABCXYZ-kk2gm dude....even if the pt. was stable...you have to get in there and fix the abd wall coz there's breach of peritoneum and the bowel loops are eviscerating 🤷🏻♂️ you didn't have to write a long paragraph asking me to read history properly coz i did read it properly and that's why i mentioned that flow chart too with timestamp Hope you understand!✌🏻
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The entire anterior trunk part is involved in the burns question, not half of trunk.
Sir in 31st image based question was about evisceration only bowel loop came out so next step should be laparotomy😊
Yes
Yes
In stab wound question... there was evisceration shown in image ...so answer should be laparotomy...
Yes, bowel loop was outside
evisceration was there , guage piece holding omentum was seen ........last question
In 3rd question 18hrs after surgery
And one option was Na and K levels ..
Sir in qstn no 28 it was asked like fever with pain (100%sure)... So I answered it antibiotics as 1st choice
Yes
But they've given it is pulsatile too so we've to confirm first what it is ! I think so
It was Infected aneurysm next step ct angio
The swelling in supraclavicular region was associated with fever , along with increased local temperature and pulsatility
It was infected aneurysm next step emergency ct angio it's given its emergency first step and next step ct angio only,
@@Ac-fx2iz i just hope your answer will be right because i marked that 🤣
@@Ac-fx2iz but two teachers said it's doppler, are you sure it is CT angio?
Q-6 :-pt was unstable having hypotension 80/60mmhg
Question 17: Option b: Sertoli only cell SYNDROME.
The pic of 25 was whitish membrane all over the oral cavity including hard palate tongue etc
What was that
SMF or leukoplakia
@@shalinishalu9568 i marked smf bcz i always saw leukoplakia pic lateral side of tongue 😃 .i was wrong with little knowledge
@@indian4031 smf s d answer right?
@@shalinishalu9568 i dont knw what is right ans actually... every one giving leukoplakia as ans.
Thyroid malignancy question hematogenous spread was givem
I'm the only one who thinks nipple retraction mentioned in the question??? So marked cooper ligament..
Me ✋
Me too 😔
everyone is saying subdermal lymphatics..bt i still feel like it was mentioned there😑😑
Bro classic peau d orange in every text book
bro agreed there was retraction of nipple and peau d'orange in the image but they had asked the reason behind skin change and not nipple change in question so the answer would be subdermal lymphatic blockage😅
sir in the 31st question the bowel loop was clearly out
Yes
That was omental patch may be
looked like omentum
Sir in 27th question option d) "Parotid Abcess" ( NOT Parotid tumor)
Nope it was parotid tumor.. And bezold abscess was other oprion
It was given as parotid swelling in the paper
@@sreelekhya658 ya...that would be the answer
It was given inflammation i guess
Firm and non tender was in question.. Option was parotid swelling
in oral cavity image question they mentioned that it was painful
leukoplakia is painless
submucosal fibrosis can b considered as ans
Q 27....wasn't a parotid tumor...there was no ear lobule lifting....m sure....I looked for ear lobule lifting...thats y m sure
no...ear lobule lifting ...people are saying...a very slight lifting was there...but i don't think so...
@@seaab me too... m sure abt it
If the ear lobule is not lifted then what is the ans ? I don't think the ear lobule is lifted
@@rahulsiddarth9065 do you remember whT the exact options were?🤔
@@travelales2190 yes a) bone tumor of jaw
B) parotid tumor
C) lymph node enlargement d) bezold abscess
28 questions.. patient with red tender sweeling having "fever " mentioned in question...no mention of pulsation.
31 question... There was evisceration... So it's clearly laparotomy.. I don't know who the guys provide these recalls
In the image...I think there was only omentum evisceration...so confusing...
@@sharmichatterjee7440 omentum is viscera only
EXACTLY!! How can someone miss something like that even if it's a recall! And there are people justifying it too saying there was no bowel loop!😪🤦🏻♂️
What they asked was ‘definitive management of this hemodynamically stable patient ‘ . The option should have been ex lap but they said emergency lap. don’t know if they wanted to trick us or what
In the supraclavicular swelling question the ent faculty Sarvjeet sir have told ct angio better as answer here sir is saying USG
Zainab mam tellingusg Doppler
Doppler to option nhn th sirf USG neck tha, aur ye infected aneurysm hain pulsatile swelling local erythema tender, and fever for 4 days , it's given online read about infected aneurysm it's the same here which was asked ct angio is the answer
CT angio is the answer but CT angio with percutaneous puncture is not the answer I guess Doppler is best with out invasive procedure.
In ques 31, sir, definitive management was asked, not next step
Then ans should be laprotomy ?
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Greetings of the day!
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tnx sir
Ques 31: In the image Evisceration was present.
Sir in 1st question image showed both peau d orange and nipple retraction.
Question asked what's the reason for the sign seen near nipple and surrounding region.
Could it be infiltration of ducts since they have specifically mentioned nipple region.
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Greetings of the day!
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Reason of the skin change was asked
Pus discharge sir ...and hairy gluteal cleft ...was there in question
Swellings were not there in cleft
@@purbahnabiswas1054 there is something called as pilonidal cyst. It presents with swelling in and around anal opening. It later becomes discharging sinus
Thank you very much sir
28...no mentioning of pulsation
Yes it was fever with pain
Yes
pulsatile swelling was given
Pulsation option given100 sure
Pulsatile was gives because i ruled out biopsy because of that only
Tq sir
Sir Fournier gangrene wale qstn me swelling wasn't black it was more of dark red
What’s ans
3:42
Sir with due respect in quesn 9 ...it was mentioned pus discharge...and the image given was of hairy man...
Exactly! It was mentioned pustular discharge
Recurrent pus discharge.. With multiple openings.. It is fistula in ano
Location was perianal not in the gluteal crease so not pilonidal sinus if that's what you are implying
Serous discharge with external opening
@@purbahnabiswas1054 sure it was fistula right? Not pilonidal ns
Sir in 31st questions ,,in exam there is bowel loop outside present..
The indications for surgical intervention include (1) patient with hemodynamic instability, (2) development of peritoneal findings such as involuntary guarding, point tenderness or rebound tenderness, and (3) diffuse abdominal pain that does not resolve
Answer is Further investigation only
@@Ac-fx2iz nope you’re wrong
55:55 check that flow chart…anterior stab wound with bowel evisceration means you’ve to do laparotomy
and the image in the exam had stab wound on rt. anterior abd. of pt with bowel loops outside..so answer is explorative laparotomy
@@HareeshSoundar had u read the history?? Yes obviously we have to laparotomy but the vitals given in the question clearly lead to the point that patient was stable... For stable patient cect is the ioc fb laparotomy... But option was immediate laparotomy.... There were so many questions like this in this paper ..... History is utmost important... PPL are only going by images or the catchy word.... But history nd the language of the question wl b one of the deciding factor... Nd nbe doesn't publish answer key.... So very very tough to predict 😥
@@ABCXYZ-kk2gm dude....even if the pt. was stable...you have to get in there and fix the abd wall coz there's breach of peritoneum and the bowel loops are eviscerating 🤷🏻♂️
you didn't have to write a long paragraph asking me to read history properly coz i did read it properly and that's why i mentioned that flow chart too with timestamp
Hope you understand!✌🏻
That was staghorn kidney