Cantor-Schroeder-Bernstein -- Proof Writing 24

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  • Опубліковано 14 гру 2024

КОМЕНТАРІ • 18

  • @TyronTention
    @TyronTention Рік тому +9

    Very thankful for this series. Proofs were my weakness many years ago when I first started math. Good to have this as a refresher for certain topics.

  • @avyakthaachar2.718
    @avyakthaachar2.718 19 годин тому

    The motivation to the proof was really very helpful.
    Thank you.

  • @suuuken4977
    @suuuken4977 Рік тому +3

    as a high school student watching this series, thanks for making it :D super interesting stuff watched it all.

  • @dawkinsfan660
    @dawkinsfan660 7 місяців тому

    I listened to all this playlist and I’ve learned sooooo much. Thank you a lot! ❤

  • @NoahPrentice
    @NoahPrentice Рік тому +1

    I was just thinking I would love to see a proof of this in Michael Penn form. Thanks for fulfilling my unspoken wishes!

  • @abhinandanmohanty3833
    @abhinandanmohanty3833 9 місяців тому +2

    How can we use g inverse in definition of h ? How do we know that there is not an element in V that does not have a pre image under g inverse?

    • @IlIlllIlll
      @IlIlllIlll 3 місяці тому +1

      g: B -> A is an injective function. So if B is non-empty there is a x in B with g(x) = y (y is in A). And since x originates from B but gets mapped to A under g, there exists a inverse image from g-¹(y) in A - which is x from B. He specifically chose a point in A which can be assigned a inv image under g.
      If there weren't at least as many points in A having an inv image in B under g, as there are elements in B, then
      (1) there would either be a element in B without an image, but that can't be since a function maps *every* element in its domain (in the case of g, its domain is B) to an element in the co-domain (which is A for g).
      (2) Or every element in B is assigned a image in A under g, but there are x1 and x2 in B with g(x1)=g(x2), which contradicts the assumption that g is injective.
      Hope that helps

    • @IlIlllIlll
      @IlIlllIlll 3 місяці тому +1

      And we don't know which element in V specifically has no inverse image under g. He just chose one which has, because there *has* to be one.
      Note that with inverse image l mean pre-image.

  • @kumoyuki
    @kumoyuki Рік тому

    The cardinality of the real numbers has been blowing my mind for the last 40 years. This proof adds yet another layer onto the mind-boggling hugeness of R. It's so big that it contains an infinite recursion of mappings onto itself! *boggle*

  • @Bodyknock
    @Bodyknock Рік тому +1

    13:39 Lol, UA-cam labelled this section of the video "Surge Activity"

  • @ahoj7720
    @ahoj7720 Рік тому +2

    Just a couple of remarks. Surprisingly this proof does not use the axiom of choice. But if there exist surjections between A and B, the AC is required to prove they have same cardinality. Another surprising application of this theorem is the fact that continuous fonctions from R to R have the same cardinality than R itself (hint: a continuous function is completely determined by its values on the rationals.)

    • @iabervon
      @iabervon Рік тому +1

      Turning a pair of surjections into a bijection is clearly a way to pick an arbitrarily element from each equivalence class so it makes sense that would require the AC. Injections have much more of a feel of all the choices having been made in advance.

  • @sumanpandey1324
    @sumanpandey1324 Рік тому +2

    Sir please start geometry lecture series after this

  • @playlists_bmac
    @playlists_bmac Рік тому

    THANKS!

  • @asitisj
    @asitisj Рік тому

    bit lost at
    16:28 , how can he cancel g from both sides?

  • @olldernew6431
    @olldernew6431 Рік тому

    yesterday,wtf
    today,amazing

  • @dodgsonlluis
    @dodgsonlluis Рік тому

    g o f would be better read as "f composed with g". But we are used to hear "aluminum", so it doesn't matter much.