I wouldn't prove that cos(y) = (1-x^2)^1/2 using pythagoras specifically because y might be equal to or greater than pi/2 radians, I would instead use the identity sin^2y+cos^2y=1 and rearrange for y. Great vid tho :)
Thank you for your valuable input. Since the range of the inverse sine function is from -π/2 to +π/2, and cos(y) is always positive, using (1-x^2)^(1/2) does not pose any issues. Please continue to provide insightful feedback in the future. Thank you.
Muy buena explicación, bien fluida y los colores están muy bien escogidos.
Gracias. Espero que mis videos te hayan sido de ayuda.
I wouldn't prove that cos(y) = (1-x^2)^1/2 using pythagoras specifically because y might be equal to or greater than pi/2 radians, I would instead use the identity sin^2y+cos^2y=1 and rearrange for y. Great vid tho :)
Thank you for your valuable input.
Since the range of the inverse sine function is from -π/2 to +π/2, and cos(y) is always positive, using (1-x^2)^(1/2) does not pose any issues.
Please continue to provide insightful feedback in the future. Thank you.
Thanks u❤
You're welcome 😊