Proof of Fermat's Little Theorem

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  • Опубліковано 10 гру 2024

КОМЕНТАРІ • 58

  • @lgooch
    @lgooch 2 роки тому +3

    I’ve been studying for competitive math and when I want to know why something is, you’re always there. Nice explanations

  • @LedCepelin
    @LedCepelin 3 роки тому +3

    I was so stuck with this one, and was looping around Euclids division lemma as a vehicle of the proof(which are the classes I suppose). This makes much more sense to me, thank you!

    • @ChristGodinyouItrust
      @ChristGodinyouItrust  3 роки тому +4

      You're very welcome JB. It is cool that you spend a lot of time to understand math, that is the best way to learn!

  • @alyaeminaga6891
    @alyaeminaga6891 11 місяців тому

    Thank you so much, this is literally the only understandable proof all over the internet

  • @Ptoad
    @Ptoad 5 років тому +10

    I could follow the proof up until you said
    a(1, 2, 3, ..., p-1) ≡ 1, 2, 3, ..., p-1 (mod p)
    Why is this necessarily the case? I realized you justified it by showing the example of a = 8 with the modulus being p = 5, but that's hardly an exhaustive proof.

    • @Ptoad
      @Ptoad 5 років тому +10

      I think I got it.
      If sa ≡ ta (mod p), then because gcd(a, p) = 1, we have s ≡ t (mod p), so the multiples a, 2a, 3a, ..., (p-1)a (mod p) must necessarily be distinct.

    • @andrii5054
      @andrii5054 5 років тому

      kjQtte thank you sir

    • @yashuppot3214
      @yashuppot3214 4 роки тому

      I mean thats pretty much common sense and if your are looking at fermats little theorem it should be assumed as trivial, but as a proof, assume that a>p-1? If a = p then a = 0 if a is greater than p we can say a =m*p + k for some natural m and natural k

  • @VersatileAnthem
    @VersatileAnthem 2 роки тому +1

    how can you say p does not divide (p-1)! .lets see for 8 . 7!/8 = 630. if i am wrong please clarify.

    • @ChristGodinyouItrust
      @ChristGodinyouItrust  2 роки тому

      I will answer later cause I have to watch the video to answer your question.

    • @VersatileAnthem
      @VersatileAnthem 2 роки тому +1

      @@ChristGodinyouItrust i got it the reason is p is always a prime

    • @ChristGodinyouItrust
      @ChristGodinyouItrust  2 роки тому

      @@VersatileAnthem Yeah cool bud:)

  • @demogorgon2125
    @demogorgon2125 3 роки тому +2

    Gonna love your videos more after seeing this.. It's really cool that you explain these stuff in so less time. ✌

    • @ChristGodinyouItrust
      @ChristGodinyouItrust  3 роки тому +1

      Thanks a lot Rabin, I appreciate the encouraging messages:) Hope you had a great day!

  • @lexinaut
    @lexinaut 2 роки тому

    THANKS! This is by far the clearest and most helpful proof of this theorem for a more general audience I have seen. I was not a math major (I'm simply fascinated by the splendors of mathematics).

  • @shubhgopal1323
    @shubhgopal1323 4 роки тому +1

    great work !! hope you get more views

  • @tajinderjotkaur3220
    @tajinderjotkaur3220 3 роки тому

    Nice explanation
    Amazing bro

  • @jimmymontoki743
    @jimmymontoki743 3 роки тому

    Thank you for the lesson

  • @Kapilsharmaonly
    @Kapilsharmaonly Рік тому

    Really helpful thank you 😊

  • @hassanalabdullah8814
    @hassanalabdullah8814 3 роки тому +2

    hhhh. felt like if you were a friend explaining to me. keep it up

  • @shahedannam1697
    @shahedannam1697 2 місяці тому

    Awesome ❤❤❤

  • @vidajohn2199
    @vidajohn2199 2 роки тому

    Great explanation, thank you!

  • @architmahatorollno.332
    @architmahatorollno.332 4 роки тому +1

    Your channel is good.

  • @zzzyout
    @zzzyout 2 роки тому

    5:10, why is the products equal to each other?

  • @ayshakhan8491
    @ayshakhan8491 4 роки тому +2

    Thanks for teaching this in such a short time🤗 ....otherwise i could not understand even in 40 mints😏

  • @skauddy755
    @skauddy755 3 роки тому

    The proof was quite intuitive..
    Thanks..🔥🔥

  • @IDK_OR_DO_I
    @IDK_OR_DO_I 4 роки тому +6

    7:22 okay I'll keep watching...jk jk great vd btw!

  • @J4135-f8k
    @J4135-f8k 3 роки тому

    Really helpful, thanks!!!

  • @saminYasir007
    @saminYasir007 4 роки тому +1

    I liked your jolly mood

  • @hendrikpure
    @hendrikpure 4 роки тому +1

    Thanks man!

  • @collinskariuki2586
    @collinskariuki2586 4 роки тому

    In the last step, i don't get why it is a^(p-1)*(p-1)! instead of a*(p-1)! please explain.

    • @ChristGodinyouItrust
      @ChristGodinyouItrust  4 роки тому +1

      Because you have a*2a*...*(p-1)a= a multiplied by itself (p-1) times and also 1*2*...(p-1) so that makes a^(p-1)*(p-1)!

  • @martivideos
    @martivideos 4 роки тому

    nice video! where are u from?

    • @ChristGodinyouItrust
      @ChristGodinyouItrust  3 роки тому

      Knowledge, Knowledge, New York but I want to go back to my country so bad. I am from Ethiopia so I am an alien.

  • @NurulIslam-dw8yp
    @NurulIslam-dw8yp 3 роки тому

    Why this rearrange ment works?

    • @ChristGodinyouItrust
      @ChristGodinyouItrust  3 роки тому

      Some number theory idea, I think I mention it, I don't remember, sorry!

  • @chamaeelegans8684
    @chamaeelegans8684 4 роки тому +1

    This is a nice explanation, but not really a proof. You have shown an example, which was good :). Just that you have not proven anything.

  • @chunlangong2214
    @chunlangong2214 Рік тому

    a could be bigger than p. for instance 7^2 congruent to 1 (mod 3) where gcd(7,3)=1

  • @soroushfth7055
    @soroushfth7055 3 роки тому

    great proof🙏👍

  • @thesanto0520
    @thesanto0520 Рік тому +2

    Not even a proof.

  • @patty_d.4773
    @patty_d.4773 Рік тому

    ❤❤❤

  • @sudheerthunga2155
    @sudheerthunga2155 5 років тому +2

    First