I heard the first wheel was invented in Yamnaya Culture areas five thousand years ago and they started moving east and west of Yamnaya using chariot, but you may be more accurate. The question is if they came directly from Russia or from Central Asia.
Iran = Aryan Bramean = MAGI the priests of Zoroastrianism RIGVED = Zend Avesta SANSKRIT language = Avestan language from ancient Iran + Prakrit language from ancient India In Persian history, Parsis came to India in the 7th century but they did not follow Zoroastrianism after coming to India. If they had done so, it would have been recorded in history.
Persians are aryan and they must have come to India long go also those Europeans and people of Egypt who believed in idol worshipping brought all to India got mixed with aryans and now see mosaic of different human the way India is it has so many tribes language customs idols and many things which you will not find in other countries they are mixed of many races this is what I am thinking may be later on they moved to other places after Noah’s flood the children of Noah’s came there to spread humanity which destroyed
Except Historians who solely belive in Hindu mythology no body else debunked Aryan migration theory. Just like how invasion theory was made by early western Historians to justify colonization, out of India theory is supported by some Indian historian to make indians look like single group of indigenous people and to feel superior but in reality lot of migration took place towards India and last happens to be Aryan migration. Only after that vedic period occurred
@@goddalehundibharathraj4374 So you're saying Sanatanism/Hinduism is Voodoo bs . . . *Rig Veda 10.23.4* "With him is this rains: Indra throws drops of moisture on his yellow beard" *Rig Veda 10.96.8* "At the swift draught, the Iron One with yellow beard and yellow hair" *Rig Veda 1.100.18* “Indra attacked the Dasyus and the Śimyus; won the land, sunlight, and water with his white-skinned friends” *Rig Veda 1.103.3* “Armed with the thunderbolt, he has gone on destroying the cities of the Dasyus, and augment the strength and glory of the Ārya.” *Rig Veda 1.130.8* “Indra defends his Ārya worshiper. He consumes the malignant; he tore off the b_______ skin; and him who delights in cruelty.” *Rig Veda. 2.20.6* "Indra, slayer of Vritra, scattered the Dasyu sprang from a b______ womb." *Rig Veda 2.20.7* “Indra, slayer of Vṛitra, destroyer of cities, scattered the b______-sprung servile.” *Rig Veda 3.34.9* "Indra gained possession of the Sun, Horses, Cow. He struck the Dasyus, and gave protection to the Ārya tribe." *Rig Veda 9.73.5* “They have roared in unison, burning up riteless men, Blowing away the b______ skin which Indra hates.”
@@realgangstalking4867 That shape which we in India call 'Swastika' is found in many places across the world. It's a symmetrical shape which can have independent roots in many civilizations. It's like saying all circles have origin from a particular country. I don't think we can take Migration of symbols across the world as a definite proof of how people have moved to different countries. You can find Swastika in Japan as well due to Buddhism, can we claim that Indians migrated to Japan or there is a Indian invasion in Japan. Just the idea of Buddhism traveled to Japan and some monks moved to Japan. Based on a symbol(that too, a relatively easy symbol) being found in Ukraine cannot prove that there was a huge migration, invasion happened in Indus Valley civilization and that people in Indus valley are all from Steppes. And apparently genetic evidence disprove Aryan migration theory( i have not read those papers, I just heard their podcasts and interviews). If people in Indus valley moved from Steppes to Indus valley in hordes, are there any civilizations or atleast settlements found in Steppes from that time?
Thank you for the upload...hopefully visitors will contribute to a dynamics of this historical discussion. Footage from Lithuania was shown documenting the continuation of the old religion of these indo europeans whose language have many words very similar to Sanskrit. To add further, Kamyana Mohila in Ukraine and other sites show burial customs and even temples of the Yamnaya culture. Of great interest is The Amazons of Adrienne Taylor documenting women of the steppes.
I'm mot a expert on this toplc, but what i think is that becouse Sanskriet written in the vedas and all the indian holy books, is a proof that Sanskriet is defeloped and became mature in india and there for if India claim Sanskriet as its own, they have all right to do so. There is no nation in that area that have so many litrature written in Sanskriet like in India.
"Aryan" is a concept that was born in Bactria (southern "Central Asia") 3700 years ago, when Andronovo Culture met and destroyed the Oxus Civilization, being then influenced. Indo-aryans were faithful to their european language (sanskrit) and polytheistic beliefs, source of hinduism. Indo-aryans migrated either to the west (Anatolia) or to the south-east (India). Some just stood there : ancestors of Kafirs, turned by the british in 1895 into "nuristanis". How do they look ? European. There was a clash between the indo-aryans and those who loved the local, oxian culture ... the iranians ... who invaded current Iran more than 500 years later (with their semitic-like religion : zoroastrianism) while the indo-aryan migration to India was already finished.
It is possible that Nuristani were genetically influenced by Indo-Greeks from Bactria. We can't know for sure. If there is a research paper on the DNA, I will look into it.
Then you'd better slap on some more lightening cream . . . No, I'm just joking . . . *Rig Veda 1.100.18* “Indra attacked the Dasyu; and won the land with his white-skinned friends” *Rig Veda 1.103.3* “Armed with the thunderbolt, he has gone on destroying the cities of the Dasyus, and augment the strength and glory of the Ārya.” *Rig Veda 1.130.8* “Indra defends his Ārya worshiper. He consumes the malignant; he tore off the b_______ skin; and him who delights in cruelty.” *Rig Veda 3.34.9* "Indra gained possession of the Sun, Horses, Cow. He struck the Dasyus, and gave protection to the Ārya tribe."
@@user-k4d-e59mo28oc your quotes are correct but your vedic hymn numbers are wrong and also your interpretations. The hymn talks about brightness of Maruts metaphorically as white-skinned. Dasyus are a group of people related to the Aryans (maybe also related to Dahe of Persians and Dacians of Greeks).
@@daspov4709 bro you are most likely mixed .. with atleast 3 different ancient genetic groups. All indians are mixtures. Even Afghan pathan have ancient ancestral south indian ancestry ..
Idonot think so migration first came to India from Europeans and frican then may be after a long time they may have gone somewhere but I don’t think so
Appreciate the series! Is it the ultimate theory? No! But, definitely in the more logical direction. Here are some factors that need to be added and explored. * The dateline:Asko Parpola revised the beginning of aryan migration to 1300ad. * Reading Avesta sheds more light on the aryans per se. After all they're aryans too.When reading the history - not the myths - aryans are praise worthy. * Hence, we are compelled to read this as asura and deva cults. I personally am inclined to see the deva cult undesirable, despicable even. * From 1300 bc - war between asura and deva cults - banishing devas to east of sindu/hindhu river could have happened between 1000 bc - 800 bc. This timeline fits into the pantheon of Indian religions and philosophies. The Sankhya religion, it's spread throughout India, the goddess centric philosophy - prakruthi is nithyam and athma is anithyam - must have been a mighty slap on the deva cult, especially the vedhic brahmin. When we see among all the lands and their cultures, India still cherishes the godesses. And as a final note, seeing the victory of pandavas should be seen as the victory of matriarchy over patriarchy.
Whatever BS you typed,their traces were found in Rakhingarhi which was more than 8000 yrs old. For people like you,if white person will say,you are foreigners;you will accept it and when you will ask for citizenship from that country,they will tell you get lost. Why? Because they know about lie which they spread.
What stuff are you smoking up that you are able to conjure up so much of BS out of thin air ? Vedas are older to the Avesta. And in most Indo-European societies it was the Devas who were venerated. The Parsi Avestan people were an exception, a rebel group moving away from the main branch of Indo-European religion which was preserved in India. Pandavas were patriarchal not matriarchal. They were sons of Vedic deities like Indra, Surya, Ashwins, Vayu etc which are all masculine.
@@zzzzz653 My friend, I'm not an aryan. So, I see them and their culture objectively as a student of history. Asuras are the Persians aka Iranians. The founder of the first empire of the world. Ahura Mazda was the first in the line of 'One God' concept, 800 - 1000 bc. Herodotus, the author of first history book, chronicles their conquest. Please read. And other historical documents. Culturally their contributions to the world is rather significant. With this in the mind when you read Avesta and the way their depiction is indeed despicable. Now, as a neutral observer should we not take arguments from both sides? By the way, I'm an atheist and I've read Deviprasad's book Lokayata and further research into that. Lokayata is by far the oldest religion, if we call that, minimum 1000 bc. Turning to the deva side, the first book of vedas, it's mostly a collection of songs about a simple lifestyle and an excellent documentation of the vedic tribes.'If you stack 10,000 cows, you'll reach heaven!' Such was their cultural development. Read the verse by Varshitha about frogs. You'll get a picture. The second book, Yajur veda is a collection of 'magical' stuff. If anyone who can think rationally will discard it as primitive and would recommend banning those procedures. The third book, Sama veda is a rewrite of Rig veda, mostly, made suitable for singing. These three were called Veda Thrayi, three books. Atharva veda was added much later, which is written in grandha script, not Sanskrit or chandhas. Only praiseworthy are the Upanishads. I've read three of the oldest, Katha, Kena and Munndaka Upanishads in their original form with many bhashyams. They're marvellous. But compared to the Avaidic and atheistic Jain and Buddhist philosophes they rate as second. And chronologically they're later than these philosophes. A lot more can be discussed in this area. When an white man, an Indo aryan, who has taken who has adopted Jesus, middle eastern god, revers another aryan writings it's natural, isn't it? Hope, I have responded to your thoughts to your satisfaction, my friend! 🙏
@@srinjoyroychoudhury7034 Another OIT supporter who doesn't know Talageri's observations are not accepted by anyone except the Hindu Right Wing. It has flaws and OIT has been discussed in the previous video.
Yamanaya are not Aryans. No such race as aryans. Aryan word 1st time has been used in India more than 2500y ago as ariya. Ariya means noble and used as adjactive. Its not noun. Yamanay must have used this wor to hid among indigenous indian people at the time of islamic invasion. This theory first was written or suggested at the time of east india company.
My question is even southern languages actually use sanskrit dna and has more sanskrit words in it... but how are these not related to sanskrit but european languages are???
There are many Sanskrit loanwords in South Indian languages due to Hinduism and other Indian religions that originated in the north. In fact, I feel there are more Sanskrit in Kannada and Telugu than in Hindi due to Persian influence on Hindi. But loanwords are not language. Language has grammar, syntax, verbs, adjectives etc, and South Indian languages are a different group. Sankrit on the other hand has common grammatical origin with European languages. An example is mentioned in the first video of this series. Another example: Hinglish is speaking Hindi with lots of English words and phrases, but that does not mean Hindi comes from English. Even Malay, Indonesian, Khmer, and Thai has lots of Sanskrit words due to Hindu-Buddhist influence. But they didn't come from Sanskrit.
@@pravyavnav but there is also a theory that sanskrit is actually a language Tha came much later than even dravidian languages. Samaskrutham in south means a language that is mixed. There is also a possibility that sanskrit was created to bridge between Iranians, AASI and the Steppes. But I don't think 🤔 sanskrit originated outside India. If you are telling European languages have same origin why not that be loan words because we are forgetting we had trade with Europe for a long time it could also have influenced the local languages in Europe how exactly did we know they are common ancestor of one language family.
@@pravyavnav for example you cannot take korean and call it as a dravidian language today as infact even southern languages seem to have middle eastern root and east asia root.
My hunch is Aryans did come to India from outside The original inhabitants of India are Adivasi. Aryans and Adivasi could not have originated from the same economic system
There are no evidences for this theory except the genetics, genetics can be intermingled due to trade routes as well. Linguistic similarities could be due to out of India movement. If Indo Aryans already had a language before coming to India why aren’t there any tablets, scripts or writings found like Indus people did centuries before them. Also if Indo Aryans brought the Vedic religion why there is not a single mention of this movement or any geographic hint outside of India? Why the Vedas mention only Himalayas to Kanyakumari as their homeland. Last but not the least if Indo Aryans came around 2000 to 1500 bce how can they possibly know about Saraswati river extensively. Whip dried long before that period. All false theory only assumptions.
This is a result of not just genetic evidence but also corroborative evidences based on linguistic studies. There is a clear well researched theory on how Proto-Indo-European languages broke up and evolved into many languages that we have today, which is also mentioned in this video. Indo-Aryans didn't have a writing system before arriving to India, hence no inscriptional evidence. Sanskrit and Vedic religion was developed in India after their migration. Hence, no memories of migration. Kankyakumari is not mentioned in Vedic texts, their only lived in Sapta Sindhu region. Please research before making an argument. Saraswati didn't completely dry up, a part of it was still there. Vedic people were descendants of both Indo-Aryans and late Harrapans, so memories of the land would have been transferred by their Harrapan ancestors. Akkadians migrated to Mesopotamia and changed the language of the land from Sumerian to Akkadian, but accepted Sumerian religion and culture. Something similar could have happened in North India.
@@pravyavnavacceptance is different Why indo aryan face south direction to worship ancestors? Why not north? Why avestan culture turria ( Eurasian steppe ) region is considered enemy region? Why danus is enemy? ( River danu race ) Why Eurasian river is named after danu= Danube / don , Dnister River? ( All has root etymology from river danu ) Why river danu people mentioned as inhuman aka danava in rigveda? Why Vedas talk about destruction of 99 settlement of Danava? Why we have evidence of mass burials massacre in Croatia 6200 year old ? Why Croatia( original harvti ) is named after indo Afghanistan ( harauvati) region? Why vala is enemy anti Aryans tyrant in RigVeda ( vala = volos/ veles = Eurasian steppe god ) ?
@@greaterbharat4175 All Indo-European languages share similar roots for most words that existed before the split happened, for example words for family members, animals, etc. There is no evidence of any kind of relation between Harauvati and Croatia. Also, mass burials massacre dated 6200 ybt in what is today Croatia are not related to Indo-Europeans, their DNA is Western European Hunter Gatherer and Anatolian Neolithic Farmer.
@@pravyavnav I commend your effort. However, I have been doing research on the same topic and the most baffling (yet simple) takeaway for me has been that these are just theories, supported by little to no evidence. There have been very less evidence found, which has then been used to corroborate the Aryan Migration theory into India, whereas the same evidence can be used to push the other narrative as well, i.e. out of India migration theory, especially of the Yamnaya tribe. This is a huge (and debatable) topic but one small example is how you used 'Proto Indo European language/people' as an example. There is absolutely no evidence that such a people or language ever existed. So many linguists have said that Sanskrit cannot be the root language of the Indo European family of languages so there must be a Proto language, but there is absolutely no evidence whatsoever to support this. Therefore, what you are mentioning in this video is a collection of supposed theories/narratives. This topic requires way more research for us to be able to establish conclusive facts.
@@Nirv1006 I agree. I also have doubts on the whole Migration Theory and validity of reconstructed Proto-Indo-European root language. The migration pattern to India doesn't make sense of a complete linguistic shift towards Indo-Aryan language. Yes, currently we can't be for sure, but based on evidence its more plausable of a migration to India rather than migration outwards.
@@beinghuman852 The Aryan DNA is so mixed that it's found in minority in almost all Indian population. Brahmins are a diverse community and roughly only 20% have R1a DNA. Culturally, all Indians are Aryans.
@@pravyavnav🤦 about 65 percent of Brahmins " by population" carry r1a ( frequency high has 72 percent) Are you confused with adna with ptdna? Adna autosomal dna is different And steppe ancestory( origin of corded ware danube region not from yamnaya) is autosomal dna Brahmins carry 5 to 20 percent of frequency ( within all Brahmins community tho )
@@pravyavnavtheir is myth danava stole the Vedas Any myth did not have total origin from imagination it has history behind it Danava took over sapt Sindhu for some time probably ruled over us ( Danava were seafaring race , sea people were considered bronze age collapser especially in west asia) Danavas ( danuna / denyen ) who resided in Adana ( Anatolia) But root origin from them was black sea or Corded ware culture ( Danube region) Danube was hub of danava race First they invaded then we retaliated destroyed their Major settlement near central asian steppe( steppe and turanian region) However they "may" already successfully to spread dna And population was much covered in indus region and we all have some degree of "danava"/ steppe ancestory in us
@@pravyavnavin myth Indra had married danava princess So it could be even by willing Aryans and Danava ( arya and danus in Avestan) admixture and hence we have Danube ( corded ware) ancestory in us
@@greaterbharat4175 No. 72% Brahmins do not carry R1a DNA. Give your sources. I have mentioned the percentage make up in a previous video. You can do a quick research too.
great! Just one object can prove so many things! Marvellous, no need to study linguistics, genetics, anthropology and compare with other archeological sites. Wow! Why aren't you an archeologist I wonder?
@@pravyavnavis there really any evidence of language in Europe before 1500 bce ? We get many artefacts like Fire altars for rituals the chariots etc not to mention the Yogi stamp shiv lingams Godesses. Etc this is enough to say that the indus valley was culturally similar to India and also we don't get any archeological evidence of invasion by far not as much as we get in Europe. If you are going to reply do tell me the evidence of Indo European Language being present in steppe before India.
@@theGOAT41034 So far we have not find any inscriptional evidence in Steppe and so we understand it as oral language. But we have coroborative evidences through evolution of Indo-European languages with the R1a migration pattern. Yes, Indian culture has been a continous civilisation since Indus Valley Civilisation. But the shift in language needs further studies. We definitely do not find a clear migration outward that created other Indo-European cultures except Mittani elites. There are multiple strands to Indian culture, some existed since Indus Valley Civilisation, some came with Steppe people, and some came with Indo-Greeks, Saka, Pahlavas, Huna etc. There has been no 'invasion'. This video is part of a series. Watch the others to understand better.
historically brahmins have been in india, since the time of world re creation around 50,000 years back. as per srimad bhagavatahm, in south india, madurai, there was a pandya king along with brahmins, who was chosen by narayana to make the boat to overcome the deluge. apart from this so many historical evidence that brahmins are natives and share the same dna as the tribals of india
I really think these people must have come from Europe and some came from Egypt who believed same as what Indians are believing now these were culture of these people worshiping mood sun human etc Idonot think Indian went anywhere people came to India from other places
I heard the first wheel was invented in Yamnaya Culture areas five thousand years ago and they started moving east and west of Yamnaya using chariot, but you may be more accurate. The question is if they came directly from Russia or from Central Asia.
You heard wrong wheels had been used by Indus people 3300 bce. No other civilisation is older than IVC.
@@kummaar1 yamnaya invented the lighter (spoked) wheel used with horse chariots. Solid wheels are much older.
Iran = Aryan
Bramean = MAGI the priests of Zoroastrianism
RIGVED = Zend Avesta
SANSKRIT language = Avestan language from ancient Iran + Prakrit language from ancient India
In Persian history, Parsis came to India in the 7th century but they did not follow Zoroastrianism after coming to India. If they had done so, it would have been recorded in history.
yeah, and I'm the president of USA
@@TheRealCaelestium AND buddha came to india on a boeing 747 from epstein's island.
@PIYUSH-694 Okay, Tamil.
@@TheRealCaelestiumkeep denying. Even sanskrit was very first written in ancient syria.
Persians are aryan and they must have come to India long go also those Europeans and people of Egypt who believed in idol worshipping brought all to India got mixed with aryans and now see mosaic of different human the way India is it has so many tribes language customs idols and many things which you will not find in other countries they are mixed of many races this is what I am thinking may be later on they moved to other places after Noah’s flood the children of Noah’s came there to spread humanity which destroyed
These people can't even imagine a little bit that what they are claiming can be in the reversed form. i.e, Bharat to Yaman
Respectfully, STEPPES is NOT pronounced as Steppees, but as in STEPS. Reference, Cambridge dictionary.
You did wonderfully well 😌
The Zend Avesta is Not the Rig Veda...Avestan is not Sanskrit, but somewhat similar.
People still peddling this Aryan Invasion theory, Aryan Migration theory or whatever? I thought it's already debunked like 100 times.
Except Historians who solely belive in Hindu mythology no body else debunked Aryan migration theory. Just like how invasion theory was made by early western Historians to justify colonization, out of India theory is supported by some Indian historian to make indians look like single group of indigenous people and to feel superior but in reality lot of migration took place towards India and last happens to be Aryan migration. Only after that vedic period occurred
@@karthikeyanmuthu871invasion theory was solely based on reading Vedas. Not on any archeology. Even people like Tilak supported that vedic reading.
@@goddalehundibharathraj4374 So you're saying Sanatanism/Hinduism is Voodoo bs . . .
*Rig Veda 10.23.4* "With him is this rains: Indra throws drops of moisture on his yellow beard"
*Rig Veda 10.96.8* "At the swift draught, the Iron One with yellow beard and yellow hair"
*Rig Veda 1.100.18* “Indra attacked the Dasyus and the Śimyus; won the land, sunlight, and water with his white-skinned friends”
*Rig Veda 1.103.3* “Armed with the thunderbolt, he has gone on destroying the cities of the Dasyus, and augment the strength and glory of the Ārya.”
*Rig Veda 1.130.8* “Indra defends his Ārya worshiper. He consumes the malignant; he tore off the b_______ skin; and him who delights in cruelty.”
*Rig Veda. 2.20.6* "Indra, slayer of Vritra, scattered the Dasyu sprang from a b______ womb."
*Rig Veda 2.20.7* “Indra, slayer of Vṛitra, destroyer of cities, scattered the b______-sprung servile.”
*Rig Veda 3.34.9* "Indra gained possession of the Sun, Horses, Cow. He struck the Dasyus, and gave protection to the Ārya tribe."
*Rig Veda 9.73.5* “They have roared in unison, burning up riteless men, Blowing away the b______ skin which Indra hates.”
Yeah, Abhijit Chavda says "I debunk the Aryan Invasion theory" 100 times 😂😂😂😂
@@realgangstalking4867 That shape which we in India call 'Swastika' is found in many places across the world. It's a symmetrical shape which can have independent roots in many civilizations. It's like saying all circles have origin from a particular country.
I don't think we can take Migration of symbols across the world as a definite proof of how people have moved to different countries.
You can find Swastika in Japan as well due to Buddhism, can we claim that Indians migrated to Japan or there is a Indian invasion in Japan. Just the idea of Buddhism traveled to Japan and some monks moved to Japan.
Based on a symbol(that too, a relatively easy symbol) being found in Ukraine cannot prove that there was a huge migration, invasion happened in Indus Valley civilization and that people in Indus valley are all from Steppes.
And apparently genetic evidence disprove Aryan migration theory( i have not read those papers, I just heard their podcasts and interviews).
If people in Indus valley moved from Steppes to Indus valley in hordes, are there any civilizations or atleast settlements found in Steppes from that time?
Thank you for the upload...hopefully visitors will contribute to a dynamics of this historical discussion. Footage from Lithuania was shown documenting the continuation of the old religion of these indo europeans whose language have many words very similar to Sanskrit. To add further, Kamyana Mohila in Ukraine and other sites show burial customs and even temples of the Yamnaya culture. Of great interest is The Amazons of Adrienne Taylor documenting women of the steppes.
Didn't know about Kamyana Mohila in Ukraine and temples. Will check it out.
I'm mot a expert on this toplc, but what i think is that becouse Sanskriet written in the vedas and all the indian holy books, is a proof that Sanskriet is defeloped and became mature in india and there for if India claim Sanskriet as its own, they have all right to do so. There is no nation in that area that have so many litrature written in Sanskriet like in India.
@thelibral669
Stop wasting your time praising Sanskrit and instead LEARN SANSKRIT!
Aryas were decent of annunaki
"Aryan" is a concept that was born in Bactria (southern "Central Asia") 3700 years ago, when Andronovo Culture met and destroyed the Oxus Civilization, being then influenced. Indo-aryans were faithful to their european language (sanskrit) and polytheistic beliefs, source of hinduism.
Indo-aryans migrated either to the west (Anatolia) or to the south-east (India).
Some just stood there : ancestors of Kafirs, turned by the british in 1895 into "nuristanis".
How do they look ? European.
There was a clash between the indo-aryans and those who loved the local, oxian culture ... the iranians ... who invaded current Iran more than 500 years later (with their semitic-like religion : zoroastrianism) while the indo-aryan migration to India was already finished.
It is possible that Nuristani were genetically influenced by Indo-Greeks from Bactria. We can't know for sure. If there is a research paper on the DNA, I will look into it.
The semtic like religion of Zoroastrianism didn't originate from the oxians it was a development created by Iranians themselves
Indian civilization is more than 0,5 million years old. Aryan is not the race, it is not the language.
Yes i am an Aryan, and I won't leave Bharata. Do what the fuck you can !
Then you'd better slap on some more lightening cream . . . No, I'm just joking . . .
*Rig Veda 1.100.18* “Indra attacked the Dasyu; and won the land with his white-skinned friends”
*Rig Veda 1.103.3* “Armed with the thunderbolt, he has gone on destroying the cities of the Dasyus, and augment the strength and glory of the Ārya.”
*Rig Veda 1.130.8* “Indra defends his Ārya worshiper. He consumes the malignant; he tore off the b_______ skin; and him who delights in cruelty.”
*Rig Veda 3.34.9* "Indra gained possession of the Sun, Horses, Cow. He struck the Dasyus, and gave protection to the Ārya tribe."
You don't look like an Aryan though
Heavily mixed may be
@@user-k4d-e59mo28oc your quotes are correct but your vedic hymn numbers are wrong and also your interpretations. The hymn talks about brightness of Maruts metaphorically as white-skinned. Dasyus are a group of people related to the Aryans (maybe also related to Dahe of Persians and Dacians of Greeks).
@@user-k4d-e59mo28ocdasyus were northern Iranian tribes
@@daspov4709 bro you are most likely mixed .. with atleast 3 different ancient genetic groups. All indians are mixtures. Even Afghan pathan have ancient ancestral south indian ancestry ..
This is I think the other way round. Migration happened from Indian subcontinent to other places around the world.
ha ha
@@differentdeep2873 indeed it did .. but steppe pastoralists came to India after 700bc with indo-european languages.
Idonot think so migration first came to India from Europeans and frican then may be after a long time they may have gone somewhere but I don’t think so
Appreciate the series!
Is it the ultimate theory? No!
But, definitely in the more logical direction. Here are some factors that need to be added and explored.
* The dateline:Asko Parpola revised the beginning of aryan migration to 1300ad.
* Reading Avesta sheds more light on the aryans per se. After all they're aryans too.When reading the history - not the myths - aryans are praise worthy.
* Hence, we are compelled to read this as asura and deva cults. I personally am inclined to see the deva cult undesirable, despicable even.
* From 1300 bc - war between asura and deva cults - banishing devas to east of sindu/hindhu river could have happened between 1000 bc - 800 bc. This timeline fits into the pantheon of Indian religions and philosophies. The Sankhya religion, it's spread throughout India, the goddess centric philosophy - prakruthi is nithyam and athma is anithyam - must have been a mighty slap on the deva cult, especially the vedhic brahmin. When we see among all the lands and their cultures, India still cherishes the godesses.
And as a final note, seeing the victory of pandavas should be seen as the victory of matriarchy over patriarchy.
Whatever BS you typed,their traces were found in Rakhingarhi which was more than 8000 yrs old. For people like you,if white person will say,you are foreigners;you will accept it and when you will ask for citizenship from that country,they will tell you get lost. Why? Because they know about lie which they spread.
What stuff are you smoking up that you are able to conjure up so much of BS out of thin air ? Vedas are older to the Avesta. And in most Indo-European societies it was the Devas who were venerated. The Parsi Avestan people were an exception, a rebel group moving away from the main branch of Indo-European religion which was preserved in India. Pandavas were patriarchal not matriarchal. They were sons of Vedic deities like Indra, Surya, Ashwins, Vayu etc which are all masculine.
@@zzzzz653
My friend, I'm not an aryan. So, I see them and their culture objectively as a student of history.
Asuras are the Persians aka Iranians. The founder of the first empire of the world. Ahura Mazda was the first in the line of 'One God' concept, 800 - 1000 bc. Herodotus, the author of first history book, chronicles their conquest. Please read. And other historical documents. Culturally their contributions to the world is rather significant. With this in the mind when you read Avesta and the way their depiction is indeed despicable. Now, as a neutral observer should we not take arguments from both sides?
By the way, I'm an atheist and I've read Deviprasad's book Lokayata and further research into that. Lokayata is by far the oldest religion, if we call that, minimum 1000 bc.
Turning to the deva side, the first book of vedas, it's mostly a collection of songs about a simple lifestyle and an excellent documentation of the vedic tribes.'If you stack 10,000 cows, you'll reach heaven!' Such was their cultural development. Read the verse by Varshitha about frogs. You'll get a picture. The second book, Yajur veda is a collection of 'magical' stuff. If anyone who can think rationally will discard it as primitive and would recommend banning those procedures. The third book, Sama veda is a rewrite of Rig veda, mostly, made suitable for singing. These three were called Veda Thrayi, three books. Atharva veda was added much later, which is written in grandha script, not Sanskrit or chandhas.
Only praiseworthy are the Upanishads. I've read three of the oldest, Katha, Kena and Munndaka Upanishads in their original form with many bhashyams. They're marvellous. But compared to the Avaidic and atheistic Jain and Buddhist philosophes they rate as second. And chronologically they're later than these philosophes. A lot more can be discussed in this area.
When an white man, an Indo aryan, who has taken who has adopted Jesus, middle eastern god, revers another aryan writings it's natural, isn't it?
Hope, I have responded to your thoughts to your satisfaction, my friend! 🙏
Another AIT/AMT Supporter who haven't read talageri or Follow the latest genetical records
@@srinjoyroychoudhury7034 Another OIT supporter who doesn't know Talageri's observations are not accepted by anyone except the Hindu Right Wing. It has flaws and OIT has been discussed in the previous video.
Shame only for narowal .for ahsan iqal.what is special in narowal worst form of corruption
*All Caucasian have same origin?*
Pls have alook to DR Raja Vedam presentation its very scientific and detail.
Base in Indian indic scriptures
Brilliant attempt to decodify the genetics 🧬 yes we all come from one mother in Africa who lived 160k years ago in Africa
Out of Africa is simply a theory without any proof in archeology.
Yamanaya are not Aryans. No such race as aryans. Aryan word 1st time has been used in India more than 2500y ago as ariya. Ariya means noble and used as adjactive. Its not noun. Yamanay must have used this wor to hid among indigenous indian people at the time of islamic invasion. This theory first was written or suggested at the time of east india company.
My question is even southern languages actually use sanskrit dna and has more sanskrit words in it... but how are these not related to sanskrit but european languages are???
There are many Sanskrit loanwords in South Indian languages due to Hinduism and other Indian religions that originated in the north. In fact, I feel there are more Sanskrit in Kannada and Telugu than in Hindi due to Persian influence on Hindi. But loanwords are not language. Language has grammar, syntax, verbs, adjectives etc, and South Indian languages are a different group. Sankrit on the other hand has common grammatical origin with European languages. An example is mentioned in the first video of this series.
Another example: Hinglish is speaking Hindi with lots of English words and phrases, but that does not mean Hindi comes from English. Even Malay, Indonesian, Khmer, and Thai has lots of Sanskrit words due to Hindu-Buddhist influence. But they didn't come from Sanskrit.
Even vedic sanskrit has many Dravidian loan words. In fact sanskrit itself looks like a mixture of indo-european words with Dravidian grammar.
@@pravyavnav uh southern languages use sanskrit grammar if you have researched... tamil grammar (tolkappiam) is actually a copy of sanskrit grammar.
@@pravyavnav but there is also a theory that sanskrit is actually a language Tha came much later than even dravidian languages. Samaskrutham in south means a language that is mixed. There is also a possibility that sanskrit was created to bridge between Iranians, AASI and the Steppes. But I don't think 🤔 sanskrit originated outside India. If you are telling European languages have same origin why not that be loan words because we are forgetting we had trade with Europe for a long time it could also have influenced the local languages in Europe how exactly did we know they are common ancestor of one language family.
@@pravyavnav for example you cannot take korean and call it as a dravidian language today as infact even southern languages seem to have middle eastern root and east asia root.
My hunch is Aryans did come to India from outside The original inhabitants of India are Adivasi. Aryans and Adivasi could not have originated from the same economic system
No Aryan no dravidan. All are from in India.
its just white supremacy fantasies from the 18th century about someone imaginary Aryan race
Naah
You say they are from Greece?
naa and when did i say that
There are no evidences for this theory except the genetics, genetics can be intermingled due to trade routes as well. Linguistic similarities could be due to out of India movement.
If Indo Aryans already had a language before coming to India why aren’t there any tablets, scripts or writings found like Indus people did centuries before them.
Also if Indo Aryans brought the Vedic religion why there is not a single mention of this movement or any geographic hint outside of India? Why the Vedas mention only Himalayas to Kanyakumari as their homeland.
Last but not the least if Indo Aryans came around 2000 to 1500 bce how can they possibly know about Saraswati river extensively. Whip dried long before that period.
All false theory only assumptions.
This is a result of not just genetic evidence but also corroborative evidences based on linguistic studies. There is a clear well researched theory on how Proto-Indo-European languages broke up and evolved into many languages that we have today, which is also mentioned in this video.
Indo-Aryans didn't have a writing system before arriving to India, hence no inscriptional evidence.
Sanskrit and Vedic religion was developed in India after their migration. Hence, no memories of migration. Kankyakumari is not mentioned in Vedic texts, their only lived in Sapta Sindhu region. Please research before making an argument.
Saraswati didn't completely dry up, a part of it was still there. Vedic people were descendants of both Indo-Aryans and late Harrapans, so memories of the land would have been transferred by their Harrapan ancestors. Akkadians migrated to Mesopotamia and changed the language of the land from Sumerian to Akkadian, but accepted Sumerian religion and culture. Something similar could have happened in North India.
@@pravyavnavacceptance is different
Why indo aryan face south direction to worship ancestors? Why not north?
Why avestan culture turria ( Eurasian steppe ) region is considered enemy region?
Why danus is enemy? ( River danu race )
Why Eurasian river is named after danu= Danube / don , Dnister River? ( All has root etymology from river danu )
Why river danu people mentioned as inhuman aka danava in rigveda?
Why Vedas talk about destruction of 99 settlement of Danava?
Why we have evidence of mass burials massacre in Croatia 6200 year old ?
Why Croatia( original harvti ) is named after indo Afghanistan ( harauvati) region?
Why vala is enemy anti Aryans tyrant in RigVeda ( vala = volos/ veles = Eurasian steppe god ) ?
@@greaterbharat4175 All Indo-European languages share similar roots for most words that existed before the split happened, for example words for family members, animals, etc.
There is no evidence of any kind of relation between Harauvati and Croatia.
Also, mass burials massacre dated 6200 ybt in what is today Croatia are not related to Indo-Europeans, their DNA is Western European Hunter Gatherer and Anatolian Neolithic Farmer.
@@pravyavnav I commend your effort. However, I have been doing research on the same topic and the most baffling (yet simple) takeaway for me has been that these are just theories, supported by little to no evidence. There have been very less evidence found, which has then been used to corroborate the Aryan Migration theory into India, whereas the same evidence can be used to push the other narrative as well, i.e. out of India migration theory, especially of the Yamnaya tribe. This is a huge (and debatable) topic but one small example is how you used 'Proto Indo European language/people' as an example. There is absolutely no evidence that such a people or language ever existed. So many linguists have said that Sanskrit cannot be the root language of the Indo European family of languages so there must be a Proto language, but there is absolutely no evidence whatsoever to support this. Therefore, what you are mentioning in this video is a collection of supposed theories/narratives. This topic requires way more research for us to be able to establish conclusive facts.
@@Nirv1006 I agree. I also have doubts on the whole Migration Theory and validity of reconstructed Proto-Indo-European root language. The migration pattern to India doesn't make sense of a complete linguistic shift towards Indo-Aryan language. Yes, currently we can't be for sure, but based on evidence its more plausable of a migration to India rather than migration outwards.
So Brahmins are Aryans???
@@beinghuman852 The Aryan DNA is so mixed that it's found in minority in almost all Indian population. Brahmins are a diverse community and roughly only 20% have R1a DNA. Culturally, all Indians are Aryans.
@@pravyavnav🤦 about 65 percent of Brahmins " by population" carry r1a ( frequency high has 72 percent)
Are you confused with adna with ptdna?
Adna autosomal dna is different
And steppe ancestory( origin of corded ware danube region not from yamnaya) is autosomal dna Brahmins carry 5 to 20 percent of frequency ( within all Brahmins community tho )
@@pravyavnavtheir is myth danava stole the Vedas
Any myth did not have total origin from imagination it has history behind it
Danava took over sapt Sindhu for some time probably ruled over us
( Danava were seafaring race , sea people were considered bronze age collapser especially in west asia)
Danavas ( danuna / denyen ) who resided in Adana ( Anatolia)
But root origin from them was black sea or Corded ware culture ( Danube region)
Danube was hub of danava race
First they invaded then we retaliated destroyed their Major settlement near central asian steppe( steppe and turanian region)
However they "may" already successfully to spread dna
And population was much covered in indus region and we all have some degree of "danava"/ steppe ancestory in us
@@pravyavnavin myth Indra had married danava princess
So it could be even by willing Aryans and Danava ( arya and danus in Avestan) admixture and hence we have Danube ( corded ware) ancestory in us
@@greaterbharat4175 No. 72% Brahmins do not carry R1a DNA. Give your sources. I have mentioned the percentage make up in a previous video. You can do a quick research too.
Chariot and sophisticated bronze weapons found in sanauli from2100 BC is enough to discredit your whole reading 😂😂
great! Just one object can prove so many things! Marvellous, no need to study linguistics, genetics, anthropology and compare with other archeological sites. Wow! Why aren't you an archeologist I wonder?
@@pravyavnavis there really any evidence of language in Europe before 1500 bce ? We get many artefacts like Fire altars for rituals the chariots etc not to mention the Yogi stamp shiv lingams Godesses. Etc this is enough to say that the indus valley was culturally similar to India and also we don't get any archeological evidence of invasion by far not as much as we get in Europe. If you are going to reply do tell me the evidence of Indo European Language being present in steppe before India.
@@theGOAT41034 So far we have not find any inscriptional evidence in Steppe and so we understand it as oral language. But we have coroborative evidences through evolution of Indo-European languages with the R1a migration pattern. Yes, Indian culture has been a continous civilisation since Indus Valley Civilisation. But the shift in language needs further studies. We definitely do not find a clear migration outward that created other Indo-European cultures except Mittani elites. There are multiple strands to Indian culture, some existed since Indus Valley Civilisation, some came with Steppe people, and some came with Indo-Greeks, Saka, Pahlavas, Huna etc. There has been no 'invasion'. This video is part of a series. Watch the others to understand better.
Indus Valley had wheeled vehicles, but not chariots, they were pulled by bullocks, not horses, like the vedic people
@@pravyavnav I agree 👍
historically brahmins have been in india, since the time of world re creation around 50,000 years back. as per srimad bhagavatahm, in south india, madurai, there was a pandya king along with brahmins, who was chosen by narayana to make the boat to overcome the deluge. apart from this so many historical evidence that brahmins are natives and share the same dna as the tribals of india
While I won't agree with you using a Puranic text to make your point, you are right with the DNA part. I will make a video on the DNA angle someday.
Aryan invasion 😂😂😂😂😂 .. Nice Joke
I really think these people must have come from Europe and some came from Egypt who believed same as what Indians are believing now these were culture of these people worshiping mood sun human etc Idonot think Indian went anywhere people came to India from other places
Keep your theories to yourself