I really appreciate you making these videos! Even though it is UK law, the US has something very similar called an invitation to bargain. This was a tremendous help for me and my current legal problem, thanks for putting me on the right track!
Is there a distinction between unilateral advertisement and bilateral advertisement? My lecturer explained that unilateral advertisements are those that involves a promise in return for an act. Like Carlill v Carbolic On the other hand bilateral advertisements are the ones that involves a promise for a promise. Such as the one of Partridge v Crittenden. My problem is that I can't see to distinguish the 2. For example if there's an advertisement stating that "Mugs for sale at $10 each, available to the first 10 customers" is this a unilateral or bilateral advertisement? It can be a unilateral in the sense that no one is bound to bring me $10, but if they do and are the first 10 customers they get the mug. On the other hand it can be a bilateral, since like the case of Partridge, it's asking me to pay money in exchange of the goods. On a similar note, is Leftkowiz v Great Minneapolis a bilateral advertisement?
What if in the case of Partidge v. Crittenden, the defendants had posted "offer for sale: Bramblefinch hens 25 each". would that be an offer or invitation to treat?
If you have any questions, let us know in the comments below!
I really appreciate you making these videos! Even though it is UK law, the US has something very similar called an invitation to bargain. This was a tremendous help for me and my current legal problem, thanks for putting me on the right track!
Thank you so much. I'm so glad I discovered your channel. You are the best
You are so welcome!
Is there a distinction between unilateral advertisement and bilateral advertisement?
My lecturer explained that unilateral advertisements are those that involves a promise in return for an act. Like Carlill v Carbolic
On the other hand bilateral advertisements are the ones that involves a promise for a promise. Such as the one of Partridge v Crittenden.
My problem is that I can't see to distinguish the 2. For example if there's an advertisement stating that "Mugs for sale at $10 each, available to the first 10 customers" is this a unilateral or bilateral advertisement? It can be a unilateral in the sense that no one is bound to bring me $10, but if they do and are the first 10 customers they get the mug.
On the other hand it can be a bilateral, since like the case of Partridge, it's asking me to pay money in exchange of the goods.
On a similar note, is Leftkowiz v Great Minneapolis a bilateral advertisement?
Thanks in advance to anyone willing to read and answer my question 🙏🏻 thanks so much I'll appreciate any insight on this topic
What if in the case of Partidge v. Crittenden, the defendants had posted "offer for sale: Bramblefinch hens 25 each". would that be an offer or invitation to treat?