My name is isaac and I’m reaching out because i got married July 18th 2013 in Stockton California and then moved back to my native state of Texas August 1st 2013. The next 9 and a half years we didn’t hardly have any contact between that time up until March of this year. I spent most of those nine years on the streets and working temp jobs until the end of 2020 when I got my CDL and I’ve been driving trucks ever since. My spouse was getting welfare until may of this year, which is two months after i started sending her money to help support her. I started sending her 1000 a week for the next 8 months until i broke all things off again. To be honest we haven’t never cohabited really. I’ve only spent a total of 28 days under the same house hold with my spouse in ten years. We don’t share any thing in our names. No house, car, bank accounts, or kids. So my question is she still in titled to alimony due to me sending her a total of 40,000 in the last 8 months. Will they base it on what I’ve done for her just this year or will they look at the whole ten years?
Yes you do bc you abandoned the marriage and used her money to take care of her ? They courts will make you pay according to her lifestyle . You going under radar won’t help in your case bc your social security number will prove different. Moving out of state means nothing, you got married under California law . 😊
Is permanent support calculated based on current income or based on the income at the time of separation? (Assuming the divorce has not been finalized 3years after it was started)
Child support is always based on current income. As each parent's income changes over time, child support can be re-calculated based on the new levels of income. Spousal support is typically based on current income levels, but it can be capped based on the marital standard of living. Two examples: Assume Husband earned $100,000 per year each year during the marriage while Wife was a stay-at-home mom with no income. At the time of separation, Husband is still earning $100,000 per year. However, 3 years later, he is laid off and the best job he can get pays him only $50,000 per year. Spousal support is going to be recalculated based on his current $50,000 income. Now assume that 3 years after separation, Husband is earning $600,000 per year. His obligation to pay spousal support is going to be capped by the marital standard of living. He is not required to pay more spousal support than the amount required by Wife to live at the marital standard of living.
@@freedivorce4045 Thank you for the quick response. Just to throw out the scenario my boyfriend is in. He made 183k on the year the divorce started, in 2020 he made 225k and might make the same this year or more. His ex didn’t want to work and stayed home. All kids are adults. Her alimony would be capped?
Laws are skewed towards feminine. if client is wife of opposing party : easy money for her attorney and always a win win I think if wife is working at time of mortgage, there should be automatic binding civil law to make her pay from independent account % based on her income even in good times at time of mortgage or whenever she starts working during mortgage. But I know legislatures would never bring that law and there would be lot of opposition terming that as " misogyny " even though on other side they will shout on top for being treated equally. Family law should also accept that and it should be binding . If wife is not working, then it is ok to apply existing. That will solve lot of injustice. So that there is less heartburn at time of separation.
Marriages are a joke. Now a days what do women and hurricanes have in common when they come they are wet and wild and when they leave they take your house in your car.
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My name is isaac and I’m reaching out because i got married July 18th 2013 in Stockton California and then moved back to my native state of Texas August 1st 2013. The next 9 and a half years we didn’t hardly have any contact between that time up until March of this year. I spent most of those nine years on the streets and working temp jobs until the end of 2020 when I got my CDL and I’ve been driving trucks ever since. My spouse was getting welfare until may of this year, which is two months after i started sending her money to help support her. I started sending her 1000 a week for the next 8 months until i broke all things off again. To be honest we haven’t never cohabited really. I’ve only spent a total of 28 days under the same house hold with my spouse in ten years. We don’t share any thing in our names. No house, car, bank accounts, or kids. So my question is she still in titled to alimony due to me sending her a total of 40,000 in the last 8 months. Will they base it on what I’ve done for her just this year or will they look at the whole ten years?
Yes you do bc you abandoned the marriage and used her money to take care of her ?
They courts will make you pay according to her lifestyle . You going under radar won’t help in your case bc your social security number will prove different. Moving out of state means nothing, you got married under California law . 😊
Does the law make you work if you get spousal support? I mean if you don’t work will the court stop your sp support??
Is permanent support calculated based on current income or based on the income at the time of separation? (Assuming the divorce has not been finalized 3years after it was started)
Child support is always based on current income. As each parent's income changes over time, child support can be re-calculated based on the new levels of income.
Spousal support is typically based on current income levels, but it can be capped based on the marital standard of living. Two examples: Assume Husband earned $100,000 per year each year during the marriage while Wife was a stay-at-home mom with no income. At the time of separation, Husband is still earning $100,000 per year. However, 3 years later, he is laid off and the best job he can get pays him only $50,000 per year. Spousal support is going to be recalculated based on his current $50,000 income. Now assume that 3 years after separation, Husband is earning $600,000 per year. His obligation to pay spousal support is going to be capped by the marital standard of living. He is not required to pay more spousal support than the amount required by Wife to live at the marital standard of living.
@@freedivorce4045 Thank you for the quick response. Just to throw out the scenario my boyfriend is in. He made 183k on the year the divorce started, in 2020 he made 225k and might make the same this year or more. His ex didn’t want to work and stayed home. All kids are adults. Her alimony would be capped?
Laws are skewed towards feminine. if client is wife of opposing party : easy money for her attorney and always a win win
I think if wife is working at time of mortgage, there should be automatic binding civil law to make her pay from independent account % based on her income even in good times at time of mortgage or whenever she starts working during mortgage.
But I know legislatures would never bring that law and there would be lot of opposition terming that as " misogyny " even though on other side they will shout on top for being treated equally. Family law should also accept that and it should be binding . If wife is not working, then it is ok to apply existing.
That will solve lot of injustice. So that there is less heartburn at time of separation.
yupp totally agree
✅
Marriages are a joke. Now a days what do women and hurricanes have in common when they come they are wet and wild and when they leave they take your house in your car.
I’m at 1031 Santee st
Downtown LA
CA91792