If I am right, total of assets before impairment on example 2 is 380k (typo on question), so would be a different on final total after impairment. Just wanted to clarify for anyone using them further. The lectures are damn useful, I reiterate lectures on and on as it gets stronger. Thank you!! Chris, you are great!!!
If I am right, total of assets before impairment on example 2 is 380k (typo on question), so would be a different on final total after impairment. Just wanted to clarify for anyone using them further. The lectures are damn useful, I reiterate lectures on and on as it gets stronger. Thank you!! Chris, you are great!!!
please post your question to the tutor on our forums,
An excellent break down of impairment! Thanks for your help!
thank you soo much sir your are excellent
The value after impairment does not reconcile to 250 what is the reason behind this, where did you go wrong?
Please do a video clarifying all about IAS36 and Revaluation Model.
sir why do you allocate impairment loss to net asset? i think net assets cannot be impaired.
this is really helpful! thank you :-)
Thanks Chris
thank you. Example-2: Total amount is $370000 incorrect, total ammount is $380,000
Hi, anyone can explain where does the figure 3.791 comes from? and how to calculate it?
PV(Annuity)Factor= (1-(1-r)^-n)/r where n=number of periods and r=periodic rate
excellent