But how could there be a Hypostatic union if Jesus did his miracles, not by his own power, but the Father working in him by the Holy Spirit. As it says, "How God anointed Jesus of Nazareth with the Holy Ghost and with power: who went about doing good, and healing all that were oppressed of the devil; for God was with him" (Acts 10:38). But for sure he was deity in his spiritual identity of the Logos made into a man. That never changed, so he was worthy of worship even as a baby. But Chalcedon would have never have written, "God was with him." They miss the point of the Incarnation, God becoming a man who is subject and dependent on the Father for everything. This was the Kenosis. Now in his exalted state he has all attributes back again. Amen?
The doctrine of the trinity is absent from the New Testament. Even the higher christology in John makes it clear that the Son is subordinate to the Father and states that the Son can only do what the Father permits and that the Father knows things that the Son does not know. Paul is a binitarian not a trinitarian and even then the Son is subordinate to the Father, and is only exalted by the Father after the resurrection.
Do you really not know that 1 John 5: 7-8 is an interpolation made into the Greek text of the New Testament after Erasmus pointed out that it was a scribal addition to some of the Latin texts of the NT, but also absent from the most reliable texts of the latin Vulgate? The text in Ephesians refers to the spirit as a vehicle of God's grace and revelation. It is not a person or part of the godhead. Paul refers frequently to God's Spirit it has no separate personhood.
@@markrobertson6460 the Latin vulgate came from Jerome who was a devout catholic and beleived in the catholic dogma so much that he ascribed to that dogma by his beleive in maryoligy, which is not biblical!
@louisvega-oe2sc You ignore my 🎉 point, which is that 1 John 5:7-8 does not appear in the Greek text of the NT and is generally accepted by biblical scholars as a very late alteration of the Greek text in order to bring it into line with some latin texts current in the 16th century in order to satisfy Erasmus' objection.
@@markrobertson6460 is that a fact? So, where can I find Erasmus or the catholic dogma in scripture? Did the catholic saints get cannonized by God or by the catholic magistarium?
But how could there be a Hypostatic union if Jesus did his miracles, not by his own power, but the Father working in him by the Holy Spirit. As it says, "How God anointed Jesus of Nazareth with the Holy Ghost and with power: who went about doing good, and healing all that were oppressed of the devil; for God was with him" (Acts 10:38). But for sure he was deity in his spiritual identity of the Logos made into a man. That never changed, so he was worthy of worship even as a baby. But Chalcedon would have never have written, "God was with him." They miss the point of the Incarnation, God becoming a man who is subject and dependent on the Father for everything. This was the Kenosis. Now in his exalted state he has all attributes back again. Amen?
The doctrine of the trinity is absent from the New Testament. Even the higher christology in John makes it clear that the Son is subordinate to the Father and states that the Son can only do what the Father permits and that the Father knows things that the Son does not know. Paul is a binitarian not a trinitarian and even then the Son is subordinate to the Father, and is only exalted by the Father after the resurrection.
1John 5:7-8, Ephesians 4:4-6!
Do you really not know that 1 John 5: 7-8 is an interpolation made into the Greek text of the New Testament after Erasmus pointed out that it was a scribal addition to some of the Latin texts of the NT, but also absent from the most reliable texts of the latin Vulgate?
The text in Ephesians refers to the spirit as a vehicle of God's grace and revelation. It is not a person or part of the godhead. Paul refers frequently to God's Spirit it has no separate personhood.
@@markrobertson6460 the Latin vulgate came from Jerome who was a devout catholic and beleived in the catholic dogma so much that he ascribed to that dogma by his beleive in maryoligy, which is not biblical!
@louisvega-oe2sc You ignore my 🎉 point, which is that 1 John 5:7-8 does not appear in the Greek text of the NT and is generally accepted by biblical scholars as a very late alteration of the Greek text in order to bring it into line with some latin texts current in the 16th century in order to satisfy Erasmus' objection.
@@markrobertson6460 is that a fact? So, where can I find Erasmus or the catholic dogma in scripture? Did the catholic saints get cannonized by God or by the catholic magistarium?