After measurement is the staging done as only 0 to 4 or the compartment is also mentioned while writing diagnosis? For example how is it written: stage 3 or stage 3 Bp?
Imagine a situation. Pure cystocele, without urethrocele. Will I be correct if I say Aa - 3 but Ba anything from - 2 to whatever length it has prolapsed w.r.t hymen but not - 3 (as it used to when no prolapse) (similarly, in pure enterocele without rectocele.. For Ap and Bp respectively) In other words, Would I be wrong if I would say points Ba and Bp could change independently when Aa and Ba respectively don’t?
The initial marking of the point is fixed. Then when the prolapse does occur after the patient is asked to cough or do valsalva manoeuvre the relationship/position of this fixed point with respect to the hymen is considered.
@@Incognito-jd3vg The definition of the inicial mark is " 3cm proximal distance from the external uretral meatus to the anterior vaginal wall" right? You mean that you mark it with like a pen or something before ask the pacient to cough?
Correction - Ba and Bp are the most dependent parts(instead of most distal parts) ... Thats why in case of complete prolapse it equals to the total vaginal length
Since it uses numbers as values it's a more accurate system especially when you have to present about it to someone else. Makes it a more universally objective method
The lecture on POP-Q was good,. But the practical application of this quantification, making a simple thing so complicated and ultimately, land upbin doing ehat you were doing early. Yes, this system is Good to differitiate the intravaginal elongation of cx from prolapse, whuch you are supposed to assess in any case. Only a change in definition of prolapse is required. A survey conducted after POP-Q, the result was, majority of the gynaecologists have not understoid and following the old system😁😁. 👍🙏
U meant vault proplapse? Mainly treated by sacrospinous ligament fixation, coccygeal suspension, suspension to Cooper's ligament It can be vaginally, laparoscopically and also by robotic approach. Mesh repair can also be done
Sam Sdf Point Aa is first marked after reducing the prolapse. The marking is done 3 cm from the external urethral opening. Once it's marked the patient is asked to cough so that the uterus prolapses . Now the point Aa is assessed as to where it is in relation to the hymen. Since the maximum length/distance of the point Aa is 3 cm it can range from +3 to -3.
![Lp. Последняя Реальность #107 РОДНОЙ ДОМ [Финал] • Майнкрафт](http://i.ytimg.com/vi/IK3QKzKUlHM/mqdefault.jpg)
Thank you so much for this video, I was stuck trying to wrap my head around this POP-Q classification for an hour, your video made it so simple!!
U made the concept crystal clear !
We expect much more such explanations .
Honestly, such a helpful video. Thank you.
Thanks for the great video! It is very useful!
Thx for ur clear explanation! Your picture make the system simple and easy to memorize 😂
This was really helpful. Keep up with the good work! :)
Very nicely explained. Thank you doctor
Well explained... Hats off👏👏😊
It was really best .... thank you so much for your help and make it so simple
Thank you so much for this explanation !!
Ow, this was very helpful!! you helped me a lot in my studies, thank you so much :D
Very effective explanation miss doc
Thankyou so much
You are secret superstar. Love from KGMU.
this was so helpful! thank you very much!
Very nice explanation! Greetings from Brazil
I loved your simple digram
It made me understand everything
Thanks alot
Very helpful nice presentation 🔥
After measurement is the staging done as only 0 to 4 or the compartment is also mentioned while writing diagnosis? For example how is it written: stage 3 or stage 3 Bp?
Clarified many of my doubts regarding this
Thanku so much
Bt doubt is in hysterectomied pt why there would be cervix??
In hystrectomized patient it is vault not cervix
All explained very well but in prolapse diagram , C is not cervix , as pt is post hysterectomised , here C corresponds to Vaginal cuff scar.
In the text books it's given as cervix or vaginal cuff
What if the patient had a total hysterectomy? Cervix would have been removed. So C would refer to vaginal cuff only?
If pt not hysterectomised, then its C
What an analysis,u beauty , suuper hats off
Thank you Thank you very much for your great clear explanation
Very nice explanation, I was confused with this... Now crystal clear. Thank you
Thank you, Mam. It helped me a lot.
Very nice n informative...kindly give more examples....
Thank you very much ...You make it easy
This is the best POP-Q explanation video thanks
Really very nice explanation of pop Q
Thank you so much .Pop q was not very much understanding before this.
Excellent teaching. Ty
Very nice explaining ability. I think you should upload more such videos on difficult topics...
Ur video is very helpful :)..upload more videos .. thanks 🙏
thanks for your simplification
Beautifully explained. Made me understand this complicated topic much better way. Thank you Miss !
thank you mam for your nice and good quality video
WHAT IS THE NORMAL MEASURMENT OF GH AND PERINEAL BODY AND WHAT HAPPENS TOTHEIR SIZE IN PROLAPSE
Rest very good explaination!!
Thank you very much
Thankyou soo much...it was an awesome...💖
Imagine a situation.
Pure cystocele, without urethrocele.
Will I be correct if I say Aa - 3 but Ba anything from - 2 to whatever length it has prolapsed w.r.t hymen but not - 3 (as it used to when no prolapse)
(similarly, in pure enterocele without rectocele.. For Ap and Bp respectively)
In other words,
Would I be wrong if I would say points Ba and Bp could change independently when Aa and Ba respectively don’t?
Asking this q because, Aa = Ba AND Ap = Bp when there is no prolapse.
Thank you for your efforts
Very helpful 👍
Very nice doctor
Very useful..thanks
Tq ma'am you made me understand very well 🙂
I think I love you! I mean... thank you!
Tommorow, is my gynec University exam... This video is so helpful👍🏻👍🏻
Thank you so much ❤
Thankyou so much 💯💯
Thank you
Hey , keep making more 🤗
Hi! Thanks for the video! I don't get this: If Aa is fixed, why is expressed like -2 or -1 in some charts?
The initial marking of the point is fixed. Then when the prolapse does occur after the patient is asked to cough or do valsalva manoeuvre the relationship/position of this fixed point with respect to the hymen is considered.
@@Incognito-jd3vg The definition of the inicial mark is " 3cm proximal distance from the external uretral meatus to the anterior vaginal wall" right? You mean that you mark it with like a pen or something before ask the pacient to cough?
Yes
@@Incognito-jd3vg thanks!
Brilliant
Very good presentation
What is the reason TVL-2 is used for staging Stage III and Stage IV .Why minus 2
Correction - Ba and Bp are the most dependent parts(instead of most distal parts) ... Thats why in case of complete prolapse it equals to the total vaginal length
U make my life eiseier thank u
Thanks dear ❤️❤️❤️
Awesome❤
Thanks 😊
Thnku so much
Can u pls make a demonstration video also...it will be really helpful
Very nice🤩
Please kindly mention that its for PG people.....
Nicely explained ....
Can u please make easy way to learn CTG and interpret , with management.?
Thanku so much👍
Thank you mam
Thanks v helpful
very helpful
Good one
Thankyou mam ...
Thanks
Thnx.. Tomorrow I have my obg exam... But I have confusion.. What is the benefit of this system.. I mean what we get cramming these values???
Since it uses numbers as values it's a more accurate system especially when you have to present about it to someone else. Makes it a more universally objective method
Why normal value of point Aa is taken -3 only
very nice ,give more examples
The lecture on POP-Q was good,. But the practical application of this quantification, making a simple thing so complicated and ultimately, land upbin doing ehat you were doing early.
Yes, this system is Good to differitiate the intravaginal elongation of cx from prolapse, whuch you are supposed to assess in any case. Only a change in definition of prolapse is required.
A survey conducted after POP-Q, the result was, majority of the gynaecologists have not understoid and following the old system😁😁. 👍🙏
nice
Very nice madam
I think Ba and Bp can extend beyond +3. If you have a complete prolapse with a total vaginal length of 9cm for example, Ba could be +6.
Woahhhhh👌🏼
Tell me about infravaginal elongation of cervix
C point is not there in hysterectomy pt
👌👌👌👌👌
What's the solution in this last case for vagina prolapse
U meant vault proplapse?
Mainly treated by sacrospinous ligament fixation, coccygeal suspension, suspension to Cooper's ligament
It can be vaginally, laparoscopically and also by robotic approach.
Mesh repair can also be done
dam good
thanku sooooo much
can u give more examples plzzzzzzzz
where u from?
She is indian most probably
please use youtube subtitle feature so that non-native english speaker can pick up with your lecture! Thank you
Nice ma'am but live patient demonstration will be good
Ur ctg video not uploading mam
How can Aa range from -3 to+3. I guess it should be Ba. Aa is fixed
Sam Sdf
Point Aa is first marked after reducing the prolapse. The marking is done 3 cm from the external urethral opening. Once it's marked the patient is asked to cough so that the uterus prolapses . Now the point Aa is assessed as to where it is in relation to the hymen. Since the maximum length/distance of the point Aa is 3 cm it can range from +3 to -3.
Whats the distance from Aa to Ba .?
3 cm
B = Aa/Ap to fornix anterior*
Mam D is pouch of Douglas
No .. posterior fornix only ! U can refer Shaw textbook of g
I think range of Ba is wrong
nice but try to add more example
uhyyooiu
yzxb.
Simple topic ko kitna complicate kr dii ho 😡
Very baad explanation......
U explain it then
@@VandanaSingh-sb5pi can do far better than this....dont know y people make few youtube videos and think they can actually teach!!!!
Thank you
Thanks 😊
Thank you mam