Thanks for the video! You assumed that you calculate interest expense based on the debt’s opening balance. So, why do you pay 10 as interest expense in year 1 while the opening balance is 0. It looks like you need to pay 0 as interest expense in year 1. That’s exactly what you do in following years. Why do you change the scheme in year 1?
Thanks for the video! You assumed that you calculate interest expense based on the debt’s opening balance. So, why do you pay 10 as interest expense in year 1 while the opening balance is 0. It looks like you need to pay 0 as interest expense in year 1. That’s exactly what you do in following years. Why do you change the scheme in year 1?
Hi, because as per instructions, we draw on debt at the beginning of the year, so we have to pay interest on the debt drawn.